CHAPTER # 1
Periodic Classification of Elements & Periodicity
1. Which of the following pairs are chemically
dissimilar?
(A) Na and K (B) Ba and Sr
(C) Zr and Hf (D) Ca and Zn.
2. The total number of inner transition elements
is
(A) 10 (B) 14
(C) 28 (C) 30
3. The alkali metal which is liquid at 15oC is
(A) K (B) Cs
(C) Na (D) None
4. Which of the following ion will form most water
soluble hydroxide?
(A) K+ (B) Ni2+
(B) Zn2+ (C) Al3+
5. Which of the following has greatest tendency to lose electron?
(A) F (B) Fr
(B) S (C) Be.
6. The oxide of which of the following elements will be acidic in character
(A) Mg (B) Rb
(C) Li (C) CI
7. Which of the following is isoelectronic with carbon atom?
(A) Na+ (B) Al3+
(C) O2- (D) N+
D
8. Which of the following ions are paramagnetic in character?
(A) Zn2+ (B) Cu+
(C) Ni2+ (D) Ag+
9. Ca2+ ion is isoelectronic with
(A) Mg2+ (B) Na+
(C) Ar (D) Kr
10. Gradual addition of electronic shells in the noble gases causes a decrease in their
(A) Ionization energy (B) atomic radius
(C) Boiling point (D) density.
11. Which of the following has highest first ionization potential?
(A) Carbon (B) Oxygen
(C) Nitrogen (C) Boron.
12. Which of the following has the smallest size?
(A) Na+ (B) Mg2+
(C) Al3+ (D) CI
13. Which of the following element has the maximum electron affinity?
(A) F (B) S
(C) I (D) CI.
14. Which of the following is isoelectronic as well as has the same structure as that of N2O ?
(A) N3H (B) H2O
(B) NO2 (C) CO2
15. The atomic radius increases as we move down a group because
(A) Effective nuclear charge increases
(B) Atomic mass increases
(C) Additive electrons are accommodated in
new electron level
(D) Atomic number increase.
16. Which one of the following is an incorrect
statement?
(A) The ionization potential of nitrogen is
greater than that of chlorine
(B) The electron affinity of fluorine is greater
than that of chlorine
(C) The ionization potential of beryllium is
greater than that of boron
(D) The electronegativity of fluorine is greater
than that of chlorine.
17. Electron affinity depends on
(A) Atomic size
(B) Nuclear charge
(C) Atomic number
(D) Atomic size and nuclear charge both.
18. Two elements whose eletronegativities are 1.2 and 3.0, the bond formed between them would
be
(A) Ionic (B) covalent
(C) Coordinate (C) metallic.
19. Ionic radii are
(A) Directly proportional to square of effective
nuclear charges
(B) Inversely proportional to effective nuclear
charge
(C) Inversely proportional to square of
effective nuclear charge
(D) Directly proportional to effective nuclear
charge.
20. Which of the following oxides is atmospheric in
character?
(A) CaO (B) CO2
(C) SiO2 (D) SnO2
21. Mark the correct statement:
(A) Na+ is smaller than Na atom
(B) Na+ is larger than Na atom
(C) CI- is smaller than CI atom
(D) CI- and CI are equal in size
22. Who introduced the zero groups?
(A) Lothar Meyer (B) Lockery
(C) Mendleev (D) Ramsay
23. Element, of group I-B are called
(A) Representative elements
(B) Transition elements
(C) Rare earth
(D) Coinage metals
24. The element with Z = 24 is placed in the period
(A) 5 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
25. Which is the part of metalloids?
(A) NA and K (B) F and CI
(C) None of these (D) Cu and Au
26. Which one of the following has the maximum
electron affinity?
(A) I (B) Br
(C) CI (D) F
27. On electrolysis of NaH, hydrogen is liberated
(A) At anode (B) in the electrolyte
(C) At cathode (D) none of them
28. Elements with greater number of electrons
have _________values of ionization energy.
a) Only one b) More than one
c) Zero d) Infinite
29. Which of the following possess maximum
hydration power?
a) Na+ b) K+
c) Mg+2 d) Ca+2
30. Higher value of electron affinity means_________
a. Atom will lose electron easily
b. Atom will gain electron easily
c. Atom may form di-positive ion
d. The reason is unknown
31. Melting points of VII-A group ___________ down the group
a. Increase b Decrease
c. Remain constant d. No regular trend
32. Oxidation state of an atom represents______
a. No. of electrons gained
b. No. of electrons lost
c. No. of electrons gained or lost
d. None of above correctly represent it
33. Mendeleev’s periodic table was based on
a) Atomic number b) Atomic mass
c) Atomic volume d) Electronic configuration
34. Elements present in a same group have the same
a) Atomic number
b) Molecular weight
c) Chemical properties
d) Electronic configuration
35. “s” and “p” block elements are also called
a) Transition elements
b) Inert elements
c) Typical elements
d) Rare earth elements
36. What is the symbol of the element with only three electrons and three protons?
a) Li b) C
c) Ag d) Cu
37. Elements with seven electrons in their valence shell are known as
a) Inert b) Lanthanides
c) Halogens d) Alkali metals
38. Which of the following pairs of elements are chemically most similar?
a) Na and Al b) Cu and Cu
c) S and F d) Sc and Zn
39. A student of chemistry will identify positively the following symbols as sodium
a) b)
c) d)
40. In the periodic table each period begins with a metal, which is
a) Most electronegative
b) Most electropositive
c) Less electropositive
d) Less electronegative
41. Which one of the following is not a coinage metal?
a) Au b) Cu
c) Ag d) Pd
42. Which is the most metallic element of 2nd period?
a) Lithium b) Beryllium
c) Boron d) Carbon
43. The outer most orbital involved in chemical bonding is called
a) Molecular orbital b) Complete orbital
c) Valence orbital d) Free orbital
44. Elements, which form basic oxides are
a) Electropositive b) Electronegative
c) Inert d) None of these
45. Which of the following has the most basic character?
a) Na2O b) MgO
c) Al2O3 d) P2O3
46. Which of the following is smallest in size?
a) K+1 b) O-2
c) F-1 d) Na+
47. Ionization energy is lowest for
a) Inert gases b) Halogens
c) Alkali metals d) Alkaline earth metals
48. An isotope of hydrogen is
a) Neptunium b) Plutonium
c) Thorium d) Tritium
49. With respect to chlorine, hydrogen will be
a) Electropositive b) Electronegative
c) Neutral d) None of these
50. Which of the following has the highest electron affinity?
a) 1S2 2S2 2P3 b) 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S1
c) 1S2 2S2 2P5 d) 1S2 2S2 2P5
51. Excluding hydrogen and helium, the smallest elements in the periodic table is
a) Lithium b) Fluorine
c) Cesium d) Iodine
52. Which halogen has the smallest electron affinity?
a) F b) Cl
c) Br d) I
53. The element with atomic number 7 is likely to have same properties to the element whose atomic number is
a) 11 b) 2
c) 15 d) F
54. Which of the following will have largest size?
a) Br b) I -1
c) I d) F
55. In its chemical properties, calcium is most similar to
a) Cs b) Cu
c) Sc d) Sr
56. Which two of the following are iso electronic with one another?
a) Na+ and O b) Na+ and K+
c) Na+ and Ne d) Ne and O
57. Which of the following is a transuranic element?
a) Americium b) Plutonium
c) Neptunium d) All of these
58. The hydrogen, which is present in the atmosphere of sun and stars in a large amount, is
a) H2 b) H
c) H+ d) H-
59. Cesium and Francium are liquids above
a) 10oC b) 15oC
c) 20oC d) 30oC
60. In an aqueous solution the hydrides of alkali metals are
a) Stable b) Unstable
c) No change d) None of these
61. As the atomic number of the halogen increases, the halogens
a) Lose their outermost electrons less easily
b) Become less dense
c) Becomes lighter in color
d) Gain electrons less easily
62. The electron affinity of fluorine is
a) – 348.8 kj/mol b) – 337 kj/mol
c) 337 kj/mol d) 348.8 kj/mol
63. Which ionic halides have high m.p and b.p?
a) Fluoride b) Chloride
c) Bromide d) Iodide
64. Which gas is used in the making of tungsten bulb filaments?
a) H2 b) N2
c) O2 d) CO2
65. The ionic halides in order of decreasing m.p and b.p can be arranges as
a) Iodide>bromide>chloride> fluoride
b) Bromide>chloride>fluoride>iodide
c) Chloride>bromide>iodide>fluoride
d) Fluoride>chloride>bromide>iodide
66. A hydride ion and helium atom has same number of
a) Protons b) Neutrons
c) Electrons d) All of these
67. Ionic hydrides are also called
a) Saline hydrides b) Salt like hydrides
c) Both a & b d) None of these
68. The hydrides are acts as powerful reducing agents are
a) Ionic b) Covalent
c) Interstitial d) Complex
69. The hydrides which are non stoichiometric in nature are
a) Ionic b) Covalent
c) Interstitial d) Complex
70. Which one is the example of complex hydride?
a) PH3 b) NaH
c) LaH3 d) NaBH4
71. The adsorption of hydrogen by platinum is known as
a) Hydrogenation b) Dehydrogenation
c) Occlusion d) Substitution
72. From left to right in a periodic table charge to mass ratio increases therefore the hydration energy
a) Decreases b) Increases
c) Remains constant d) None of these
73. ______ elements have been discovered so
far.
a) 100 b) 110
c) 120 d) 150
74. _______ classified the then known elements
into metals, non metals and their derivatives.
a) Dobreiner b) Al – Razi
c) Newlands d) Mendeleeve
75. Dobreiner’s work led to the law of triads which states that ______
a) Atomic weight of any one element was
found to be approximately the mean of the
other two elements of triad.
b) Atomic weight of the middle element was
found to be approximately the mean of the
other two elements of a triad.
c) Atomic number of any one element was
found to be approximately the mean of the
other two elements of a triad.
d) Atomic number of the middle element was
found t be approximately the mean of the
other two elements of a triad.
76. The law of octaves was given by _______
a) Dobreiner b) Al – Razi
c) Newlands d) None of these
77. Law of octave states that ______
a) The properties of every 6th element from the
given one were similar to the first.
b) The properties of every 9th element from the
given one were similar to the first.
c) The properties of every 8th element from the
given one were similar to the first.
d) The properties of every 7th element from the
given one were similar to the second.
78. Mendeleev’s Periodic Table was based on _______
a) Atomic number b) Atomic mass
c) Atomic volume d) Electronic configuration
79. Moseley’s work led to the periodic law, which
states that _______
a) The number of the electrons in the 1st
energy level increases as the atomic
number increases.
b) The properties of the elements are a
periodic function of their atomic mass.
c) The x – rays spectra of the elements are
more complex than the optical spectra.
d) The properties of elements are the periodic
function of their atomic number.
80. A pair of elements in the same family in the
periodic table classification is ________
a) Chlorine and carbon
b) Calcium and aluminum
c) Nitrogen and neon
d) Sodium and potassium
81. In the period, the elements are arranged in
strict sequence in order of _______
a) Increasing charges in the nucleus.
b) Increasing atomic weights.
c) Increasing number of electrons in valence
shell.
d) Increasing valency.
82. Uranium is a member of
a) s – block b) p – block
c) d – block d) f – block
83. How many ionization energies can carbon
have?
a) 1 b) 2
c) 4 d) 6
84. Which ion has the maximum polarization
power?
a) L+ b) Mg 2+
c) Al 3+ d) O 2-
85. Which of the following halides is not oxidized
by MnO2?
a) F b) Cl-
c) Br d) I
86. The process requiring absorption of energy is
a) F → F b) Cl → Cl
c) O → O2 d) H → H
87. Most of the known elements are metals of
______ of periodic table.
a) D – block b) P – block
c) III – group d) Zero block
88. The volume in cubic centimeters occupied by
one gram atom of the element is called
______
a) Atomic volume b) Atomic weight
c) Mass number d) None
89. The lowest ionization energies are found in the
_______
a) Inert gases b) Alkali metals
c) Transition elements d) Halogens
90. The unit of ionization energy is _______
a) Joule b) Calorie
c) Electron volt d) None
91. The electropositive elements form _____
a) Acidic oxides b) Basic oxides
c) Neutral oxides d) Amphoteric oxide
92. The electronegative elements form _____
a) Acidic oxides b) Basic oxides
c) Neutral oxides d) Amphoteric oxide
93. The ionization energy of nitrogen is more than
oxygen because of _______
a) More attraction of electrons by the nucleus
b) More penetration effect
c) The extra stability of half filled p – orbital
d) The size of nitrogen atom is smaller.
94. _______ ion has the largest radius.
a) Al+3 b) Cl-1
c) F-1 d) O-2
95. Ionic hydrides are usually _______
a) Liquids at room temperature
b) Good reducing agents
c) Good electrical conductors in solid state
d) Easily reduced.
96. The hydronium ion is a/an _______
a) Ion with formula H2O+
b) Ion with the formula H3O+
c) Free radical rather than an ion
d) Ion formed by removal of H- form a water
molecule.
97. When steam is passed over red hot coke at
1000oC, a mixture of carbon monoxide and
hydrogen gas is produced. It is known as
______
a) Heavy water b) Water gas
c) Phosgen gas d) None
CHAPTER # 2
S-Block Elements
1. The oxides of beryllium are.
(A) Acidic (B) Basic
(C) Ba+2 (D) Mg+2
2. Which ion will have the maximum value of heat of hydration?
(A) Na+ (B) Cs+
(C) Ba+2 (D) Mg+2
3. Which one of the following is not an alkali metal?
(A) Sodium sulphate B) Potassium sulphate
(C) Zinc sulphate D) Barium sulphate
4. The element cesium bears resemblance with.
(A) Ca (B) Cr
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
5. Chile saltpeter had the chemical formula
(A) NaNO3 (B) KNO3
(C) Na2B4O7 (D) Na2CO3H2O
6. The ore CaSO42H2O has the general name.
(A) Gypsum (B) Dolomite
(C) Calcite (D) Epsom salt
7. Down's cell is used to prepare.
(A) Sodium carbonate
(B) Sodium bicarbonate
(C) Sodium metal
(D) Sodium hydroxide
8. Which element is deposited at the cathode during the electrolysis of brine in Nelson's cell?
(A) H2 (B) Na
(C) CI2 (D) O2
9. Ionic radius of potassium is.
(A) 60 pm (B) 133 pm
(C) 99 pm (D) 169 pm
B
10. Among alkaline Earth Metals, the highest heat of hydration is of.
(A) Be (B) Sr
(C) Rb (D) Cs
11. The chemical formula of sylvite is.
(A) Na2CO3. H2O (B) KCI
(C) KCI. MgCL2. 6H2O (D) NaCI
12. The chemical formula of Alumite (Alum stone) is.
(A) KCI. MgCI2. 6H2O
(B) KCI
(C) Na2B4O7. 10H2O
(D) K2SO4 Al(SO4)3. 2Al(OH)3
13. Among alkali metals the lowest atomic number is of.
(A) Rb (B) K
(C) Sr (D) Li
14. Due to the high reactivity nature of the alkali
metals, they are found in.
(A) Free in nature
(B) Bounded with other elements
(C) Not free in nature
(D) All of the above
15. Magnesium is an essential constituent of.
(A) Storaata (B) Plants
(C) ChlorophyII (C) None of the above
16. Which of the alkali earth metal has radioactive
nature.
(A) Be (B) Rb
(C) Both of the above (D) Na
17. Calcium Phosphate Ca3 (PO4) and calcium
fluoride CaF2 are essential part of living
organisms.
(A) Bones, egg shells (B) teeth
(C) Sea-shells (D) All of the above
18. Dolomite is a compound of which elements.
(A) Be (B) Mg
(C) Ca (D) Ba
19. The melting point and boiling point of which
alkaline earth metal is high.
(A) Sr (B) Mg
(C) Be (D) Na
20. The super oxides are formed by the elements.
(A) K, Rb, Cs (B) K, Na, Cs,
(C) K, Li, Na (D) None of the above
21. Potassium, rubidium and caeslium are so highly reactive that they react with ice even at .
(A) -100OC (B) -200OC
(C) -50oC (D) -0oC
22. Among the alkaline earth metal which has least reactivity even upto 800oC
(A) Ba (B) Cs
(C) Li (D) Be
23. Plaster of paris is formed after heating upto
100OC
(A) Mg(NO3)2 (B) CaSO4, 2H2O(gypsum)
(C) NaNO2 (D) LiNO3
24. The root system of several plants have been
greatly enlarged by the application of.
A) Sulphur B) Gypsum
C) Both of the above D) None of the above
25. When deficiency of calcium exists various
substances are accumulated in plants in harmful concentration which are.
(A) Lime
(B) Aluminium
(C) Aliminium and Manganese
(D) None of the above
26. Which alkali metal behave different by from others?
(A) Mg (B) Na
(C) Rb (D) Li
27. Spodumene, petalite, halite, natron, alinite are
the common minerals of.
A) Alkali metals B) Alkaline earth metals
C) Both of the above D) Li
28. Sodium is prepared by the electrolysis of.
(A) Simple NaCI in Down,s cell
(B) Molten NaCI in Down,s cell
(C) Molten sodium hydroxide in down's cell
(D) None of the above
29. Lime is used in.
(A) Glass industry
(B) Glass and paper industries
(C) Paper industries
(D) None of the above
30. The elements which are very abundant in earth crust are__________
a) Si & Aℓ b) Ca & Mg
c) B & Aℓ d) All
31. The oxides of Be are ___________
a) Acidic b) Basic
c) Amphoteric d) None
32. Carbonates of lithium are not stable like that of
sodium due to _____
a) Low electronegativity
b) Low electropositivity
c) Low charge density
d) Not know yet
33. Which one of the following is not an alkali metal?
a) Francium b) Caesium
c) Rubidium d) Radium
34. Which of the following sulphates is not soluble in water?
a) Sodium sulphate b) Potassium sulphate
c) Zinc sulphate d) Barium sulphate
35. The ore CaSO4.2H2O has the general
name____
a) Gypsum b) Dolomite
c) Sodium metal d) Sodium hydroxide
36. Crystals of Na2CO3. 10H2O when exposed to air, _______
a) Lose water and remain solid
b) Gain water and remain solid
c) Gain water and become liquid
d) Remains unchanged.
37. The deliquescence is a process in which a
solid________
a) Absorbs moisture and remains solid
b) Absorbs moisture and turns to liquid form
c) Loses water of crystallization
d) Increases the number of water of
crystallization
38. In diaphragm cell, level of brine in anode
compartment is kept slightly higher which
prevents_________
a) Hydroxide ions to reach anode
b) Chlorine gas to mix
c) Anode to decay
d) All
39. Alkali metals form bonds
a) Ionic b) Covalent
c) Metallic d) Co-ordinate covalent
40. The alkali metals, which have radioactive isotopes
a) Li b) Na
c) K d) K and Rb
41. Halite is the mineral of
a) Sodium b) Potassium
c) Lithium d) Cesium
42. Na2SO3.10H2O is the mineral of sodium and is called
a) Spodumene b) Halite
c) Natron d) Sylvite
43. Which one of the following is dolomite?
a) MgCO3 b) MgCO3.CaCO3
c) CaCO3 d) BaSO4
44. The high electrical conductivity of alkali metals is due to the
a) Free motion of valence electrons
b) High I.P
c) Lesser atomic radii
d) None of these
45. Sodium imparts color to Bunsen flame
a) Green b) Violet
c) Blue d) Yellow
46. All alkaline earth metals are white except
a) Mg b) Ca
c) Be d) Sr
47. Metals, which are higher that water, are
a) Alkaline earth metals
b) Coinage metals
c) Alkali metals
d) All of these
48. Except lithium, the hydroxides of all alkali metals are
a) Strongly acidic b) Strongly basic
c) Weakly basic d) All of these
49. The carbonates and phosphates of which elements are insoluble in water
a) Na and K b) Na and Be
c) Li and Mg d) All of these
50. All alkaline earth metals react with water at room temperature to release hydrogen and give basic solutions except
a) Be and Ca b) Be and Mg
c) Ca and Mg d) Mg and Sr
51. Lithium only forms normal oxides when burnt on air but when sodium burnt in air it forms
a) Normal oxides b) Sub oxides
c) Peroxides d) Super oxides
52. The super oxides of alkali metals are generally represented by
a) M2O b) M2O2
c) MO2 d) M2O3
53. The nitrates of which group decompose on heating with the formation of nitrites and evolution of oxygen
a) IA b) II A
c) III A d) IV A
54. A small amount of calcium chloride or mixture of KCl and KF is added to NaCl in Down’s cell
a) To make it good conductor
b) To decrease the m.p of NaCl
c) To increase the ionization of NaCl
d) To decrease the ionization of NaCl
55. Liquid sodium in the Down’s cell is collected at a temperature of
a) 700oC b) 600oC
c) 500oC d) 400oC
56. The product, which is obtained at cathode in the Down’s cell is
a) Liquid Sodium b) Dry chlorine
c) Water d) Hydrogen
57. Which is manufactured by the electrolysis of fused sodium chloride?
a) NaOH b) NaHCO3
c) Na d) Na2CO3
58. Which of the following does not conduct electricity?
a) Boron b) Gallium
c) Indium d) Thallium
59. Which alkali metal is rare and found in a small amount in all – igneous rocks?
a) Li b) Na
c) K d) Fr
60. The ingredient of baking powder is
a) NaHCO3 b) NaOH
c) Na2CO3 d) NaCl
61. The formula of plaster of Paris is
a) CaSO4 b) CaSO4.H2O
c) CaSO4.2H2O d) 2CaSO4.H2O
62. Which of the following is fluorspar?
a) CaO b) CaCO3
c) CaF2 d) NaOH
63. Potassium is kept in
a) Water b) Alcohol
c) Ammonia d) Kerosene oil
64. Which one has high m.p?
a) NaCl b) NaBr
c) Nal d) NaF
65. Which one of the following is most basic?
a) Al2O3 b) SiO2
c) P2O5 d) MgO
66. Gypsum is
a) CaSO4.2H2O b) CaSO4.H2O
c) CaSO4 d) MgSO4
67. Which one is commonly used as a
laboratory desicator?
a) Na2CO3 b) NaCl
c) CaCl3 d) NaOH
68. The radioactive alkaline earth metal is
a) Be b) Mg
c) Ra d) Ba
69. Which one of the following elements has its compounds which are diamagnetic and colourless?
a) Be b) Sr
c) Na d) All of these
70. Which metal is an important component of transistors?
a) Ag b) Au
c) Ra d) Os
71. Which impurities are present in common salt?
a) Na2SO4 b) CaSO4
c) CaCl2 d) All of these
72. K can displace Na from NaCl due to
a) Greater I.P of K
b) Greater I.P of Na
c) More electropositivity of K
d) More electropositivity of Na
73. The alkali metal, which is artificially prepared
a) Na b) Rb
c) Fr d) Cs
74. The chemical use for the production of CO2 in the fire extinguishers is
a) NaOH
b) NaCl
c) NaHCO3 and dilute acid
d) NaHCO3 and NaOH
75. LiCl is more soluble in organic solvents than NaCl because
a) Li+1 has higher heat of hydration than Na+
b) Li+1 has lower heat of hydration than Na+
c) LiCl is more covalent than NaCl
d) Lattice energy of NaCl is less than that of LiCl
76. Which compound is used for uric acid treatment in human beings?
a) Na2CO3 b) NaHCO3
c) Li2CO3 d) NaNO3
77. Which element is used in T.V picture tube?
a) Na b) K
c) Ca d) Cs
78. Which one is used in the manufacture of chalk pencils?
a) Marble b) Gypsum
c) Epsom salt d) Baking soda
79. Plaster of Paris has a structure
a) Cubic b) Monoclinic
c) Hexagonal d) Orthorhombic
80. Potassium super oxide (KO2) is used in breathing equipments for mountaineers and space craft because it absorb
a) Oxygen and giving out CO2 at the same time
b) N2 and giving out CO2 at the same time
c) CO2 and giving out O2 at the same time
d) Pollutants and giving out O2 at the same time
81. The hydroxide, which is called milk of magnesium and is used for treatment of acidity in stomach, is
a) Ca(OH)2 b) Mg(OH)2
c) Sr(OH)2 d) Ba(OH)2
82. Mg+2 is smaller the Na+1 because
a) Mg+2 has fewer electron than Na+1
b) Mg+2 has greater electron than Na+1
c) Mg+2 has greater atomic number than Na+1
d) Mg+2 has low I.P than Na+1
83. Which of them has almost same electronegativity?
a) Be, B b) B, Al
c) Be, Al d) K, Na
84. A mixture formed by mixing one volume of slaked lime Ca(OH)2 with three or four volume of sand and water to form a thick paste is called
a) Lime water b) Dead water
c) Quick lime d) Milk of lime
85. If the compound has the same crystal structure and analogous formulae, they are called
a) Isotopes b) Allotropes
c) Isomers d) Isobars
86. Out of all elements of group IA, the highest
heat of hydration is for _______
a) K b) Rb
c) Cs d) Li
87. The nitride ion in lithium nitride is composed of
a) 7 protons and 7 electrons
b) 10 protons and 7 electrons
c) 10 protons and 10 electrons
d) 10 protons and 5 electrons
88. When NH3 is passed over heated sodium at
300oC, the product formed is
a) NaNH2 b) NaNO2
c) Na(NH3)2 d) Na3N
89. Sodium metal can be stored under
a) Benzene b) Kerosene
c) Alcohol d) Water
90. Chile sulphur is
a) NaNO2 b) KNO2
c) NaNO3 d) KNO3
91. Alkali metals do not exist in
a) Monoatomic b) Diatomic
c) Triatomic d) None of these
92. In general alkali metals act as ________
a) Reducing agents
b) Oxidizing agents
c) Both reducing and oxidizing agents
d) None of these
93. Sodium is not observed in + 2 oxidation state
because of its ______
a) High first ionization potential
b) High second oxidation potential
c) High ionic radius
d) High electronegativity
94. The metallic luster of sodium is explained by the presence of _______
a) Na+ ions
b) Conduction electrons
c) Free protons
d) A body centered cubic lattice
95. In the alkali metal series, Cesium is the most
reactive metal because _______
a) Its incomplete shell is nearest to nucleus
b) The valence electron has a larger orbit than
the orbit of the valence electron of any of
the other.
c) It exerts considerable beautiful force on the
valence electrons
d) It is a heavier metal.
96. A graphite anode is used in Down’s cell for the
production of sodium because ______
a) It does not react with sodium
b) It does not react with chlorine
c) It is easy to fashion in circular form
d) It floats on the fused sodium chloride
97. Alkaline earth metals form ______ carbides on
heating with carbon.
a) Stable b) Unstable
c) Soluble d) None of these
98. When burnt in air, Lithium forms _______
a) Normal oxide b) Peroxide
c) Super oxide d) None of these
99. Sodium bicarbonate is commonly called
a) Soda ash b) Baking soda
c) Caustic soda d) None of these
100. _______ is a stronger base.
a) NaOH b) KOH
c) LiOH d) HCl
101. Excess of NaOH reacts with zinc to form
a) Zn(OH)2 b) ZnH2ZA
c) Na2ZnO2 d) ZnO
102. Which of the following represents calcium
chlorite?
a) CaClO2 b) Ca(ClO4)2
c) Ca(ClO3)2 d) Ca(ClO2)2
103. Sodium hydroxide solution reacts with
phosphorus to give phosphine, To bring about
we need this reaction
a) White phosphorus and dilute NaOH
b) White phosphorus and concentrated NaOH
c) Red phosphorus and dilute NaOH
d) Red phosphorus and concentrated NaOH
104. Sodium reacts with water more vigorously than
lithium because it
a) Has higher atomic weight
b) Is more electronegative
c) Is more electropositive
d) Is a metal
105. Plaster of Paris hardens by
a) Giving off CO2
b) Changing into CaCO3
c) Uniting with water
d) Giving out water
CHAPTER # 3
Group III and IV Elements
1. Which metal is used in the thermal process because of its activity.
(A) Iron (B) Copper
(C) Aluminum (D) Zinc
2. Aluminum oxides is
(A) Acidic oxide (B) Basic oxide
(C) Amphoteric oxide (D) None of these
3. Chemical composition of colemnite is.
(A) Ca2B6O11. 5H2O (B) CaB4O7. 4H2O
(C) Na2B4O7. 4H2O (D) CaNaB5O9. 8H2O
4. Which element forms an ion with charge 3+.
(A) Beryllium (B) Aluminum
(C) Carbon (D) Silicon
5. Which element among the following belongs to
Group IVA of the periodic Table.
(A) Barium (B) Iodine
(C) Lead (D) Oxygen
6. Boric acid cannot be used.
(A) As antiseptic in medicine
(B) For washing eyes
(C) In soda bottles
(D) For enamels and glazes
7. Which of the following elements is not present
abundantly in earth's crust.
(A) Silicon (B) Aluminum
(C) Sodium (D) C
8. The chief Ore of aluminum is.
(A) Na3AIF6 (B) Al2O3. 2H2O
(C) Al2O3 (D) Al2O3. H2O
9. The Group IIA of the periodic table comprises the elements.
(A) Boron, aluminum, gallium, indium and
thallium.
(B) Boron gallium, thallium.
(C) Aluminum, calcium, strontium.
(D) All of the above
10. Boron is non-metallic because of
(A) Large size and higher nuclear change
(B) Small size and higher nuclear charge
(C) Small size and smaller nuclear charge
(D) None of the above
11. The increase in the atomic size in group is
(A) Regular (B) Irregular
(C) Both (D) None of the above
12. Orthoboric Acid is a mineral of.
(A) Aluminum (B) Silicon
(C) Calicium (D) Boron
13. Aluminum is the third most abundant elements in earth crust after.
(A) Oxygen (B) Silicon
(C) None of the above (D) Both of the Both
14. Bauxite is an ore of.
(A) Aluminum (B) Boron
(C) Carbono (D) Gallium
15. Which of the elements of Group IIA are rare and only obtained as by-products.
(A) Gallium thallium
(B) Thallium indium
(C) Gallium indium
(D) Gallium thallium indium
16. Borax is the sodium salt of tetraboric acid. It is
most important of all among.
(A) Borates (B) Carbonates
(C) Bicarbonates (D) None of the above
17. Borax occurs as natural deposit called tincal in the dried up lakes of.
(A) Tibet (B) California
(C) Tibet & California (D) Virginia
18. Group IV A of the periodic table comprises
elements.
(A) Carbon silicon
(B) Tin, carbon , silicon
(C) Carbon, silicon, tin and lead
(D) None of the above
19. The non-metals in Group IV A are.
(A) Carbon, silicon (B) Tin and Lead
(C) All of the above (D) None of the above
20. The elements of Group IV A are character sized by a set of .
(A) Three valence shell electrons
(B) Four valence shell electrons
(C) Five valence shell electrons
(D) Two valence shell electrons
21. Group IV A elements form.
(A) Super oxide (B) Oxides
(C) Dioxide (D) All of the above
22. The property of catenation among the carbon and silicon .
(A) Increase on moving down the group form
carbon to lead
(B) Decrease on moving down the group from
lead to carbon.
(C) Decreases on moving down the group
from carbon to lead
(D) Stable on moving down the group from
carbon to lead.
23. The oxides of carbon are
(A) CO and CO2
(B) CO, CO2 and C3O2 carbon sub oxide
(C) CO, CO2, C2C3
(D) None of the above
24. China wares are made form a mixture of
(A) Kaolin and bone ash
(B) Kaolin and feldspar
(C) Kaolin feldspar and bone ash
(D) None of the above
25. Various oxides are used as pigments in the
pigments of which element.
(A) Oxides of lead, basic lead carbonate etc.
(B) Various oxides of lead
(C) Various oxides of lead, basic lead
carbonate, lead chromate
(D) Oxides of aluminum
26. Boron occurs in traces and has been found to be important for the growth of.
(A) Plants of many kinds
(B) Plants and animals
(C) Animals
(D) None of the above
27. Semiconductors conduct electricity better than.
(A) Conductors (B) Insulators
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
28. Oxygen is the abundant element in earth crust?
(A) Most of all
(B) 2nd in number
(C) Third most abundant
(D) 4th most abundant
29. Substance which is found in dried up lakes of Tibet and California is______
a) Tincal b) Boric Acid
c) Calcium carbonate d) All
30. Boron is a white crystalline solid and it is________
a) More soluble in cold water
b) More soluble in hot water
c) More soluble in water
d) Soluble only in organic solvents
31. One of the outstanding features of boron is ability to form________
a) Molecular addition compounds
b) Molecular crystals
c) Semiconductors
d) All
32. Which of the following does not give Borax bead test?
a) Cu b) Cr
c) Ni d) Al
33. The metal which is used in thermite process
because of its activity is_______
a) Iron b) Copper
c) Aluminium d) Zinc
34. Which of the following shows inert pair effect?
a) Boron b) Carbon
c) Silicon d) Tin
35. Tincal is a mineral of____________
a) Al b) Si
c) B d) C
36. Because of its ability to combine with both oxygen and nitrogen, aluminium metal is
used_________
a) As nitrometer
b) To remove air bubbles from molten metal
c) To produce alloy
d) All
37. Silicon differ from silica by a group of _________
a) CH3 b) –OH
c) OCH3 d) O2
38. Boron in soil has been considered essential
specially for________
a) Soil porosity
b) Proper growth of plants
c) Alkalinity of soil
d) All
39. Special feature of borate glass is that it is ______
a) Heat resistant
b) Low melting
c) Used to prepare chemical garden
d) All
40. In p – block elements, the S – electrons of outer shell of the heavier members are failed to participate in bonding, because they
a) Remain paired b) Remain unpaired
c) Are free d) None of these
41. The tendency of the pair of S – electron to remain inert increase with the increase in
a) Atomic number b) Atomic weight
c) E.N d) I.P
42. Boron does not easily form cations, because it has the tendency to form bond like non-metal
a) Ionic bond b) Metallic bond
c) Hydrogen bond d) Covalent bond
43. Boron is metalloid and semiconductor like
a) Be b) K
c) Si d) Al
44. Which element is unstable in air and is oxidized superficially in air
a) Aluminum b) Thallium
c) Gallium d) Indium
45. Crystalline boron has structure
a) Cubic b) Monoclinic
c) Hexagonal d) Trigonal
46. The hydrides B2H6 and Si2H6 are said to
a) Ionic hydrides b) Complex hydrides
c) Interstitial hydrides d) Covalent hydrides
47. The compound, which is used in borax bead test for cations analysis, is
a) NaOH b) H3BO3
c) Na2B4O7.10H2O d) H2B4O7
48. Orthoboric acid is weak acid because it
a) Accepts OH-1 ion b) Donate OH-1 ion
c) Accept H+1 d) Donate H+1
49. The aqueous solution of which acid is used for washing eyes?
a) H2B4O7 b) HCl
c) H3BO3 d) HBO2
50. The process in which Bauxite is purified by dissolving it in 45% aqueous NaOH at 150oC to separate insoluble iron oxide as red mud is called
a) Hall’s process b) Baeyer’s process
c) Arrhenius process d) Grignard process
51. Bauxite is an oxide mineral of
a) Cu b) Ag
c) Al d) Zn
52. AlCl3 and GaCl3 are covalent when anhydrous because
a) They belong to group III A
b) Their ions have small size and high charge
c) They have high I.P
d) None of these
53. In the electrolysis of alumina is mixed with Cryolite (Na3AlF6) and fluorspar (CaF2) in the ratio of 20 : 60 : 20. the function of the Cryolite and fluorspar is
a) To decrease the fusion temperature of alumina and to make good conductor of electricity
b) To dissolve alumina
c) To dissolve sodium
d) To increase the ionization of alumina
54. Termite is a mixture of
a) Iron oxide and aluminum
b) Iron oxide and copper
c) Copper oxide and aluminum
d) None of these
55. In aluminum termite process, aluminum acts as a
a) Reducing agent b) Oxidizing agent
c) A flux d) None of these
56. Which aluminium alloy is extremely light?
a) Duralumin b) Alnico
c) Magnalium d) Aluminium bronze
57. Cupric oxide on heating with B2O3 yields blue colored beads in the oxidizing flame because
a) Cupric borates are white in color
b) Cupric borates are black in color
c) Cupric borates are green in color
d) Cupric borates are blue in color
58. In mordenting aluminium ions (Al+3) are precipitated on the cloth as
a) Al2O3 b) AlN
c) Al(OH)3 d) AlCl3
59. Platinum metal can be dissolved in
a) Hot con HCl
b) Hot con H2SO4
c) Hot con HNO3
d) A mixture of Con. HCl and con HNO3
60. Which of the following can form nitride, which react with water to give ammonia?
a) Boron b) Gallium
c) Indium d) Thallium
61. The weak acid, which cannot be titrated with standard alkies, is
a) HCl b) H2SO4
c) H3BO3 d) All of these
62. Carbon differs from other members of its group due to smaller atomic size, higher electronegativity and the absence of
a) s – electrons b) p – electrons
c) d – electrons d) All of these
63. Aqua regia is a mixture of concentrated HNO3 and concentrated HCl in the ratio of
a) 3 : 1 b) 1 : 3
c) 2 : 3 d) 3 : 2
64. In land storage batteries, the acid used is
a) Con HCl b) Dil HCl
c) Con H2SO4 d) Dil H2SO4
65. The dry ice is a compound of
a) Solid ice with any water
b) Solid SO2
c) Solid CO2
d) Solid C6H6
66. In the contact process for the manufacturing of H2SO4, the catalyst used is
a) Cu b) Ni
c) Pt d) N2O5
67. The depositing layer in tin plating is
a) Cu b) Sn
c) Al d) Ni
68. Ortho boric acid on heating at 100oC yields
a) Meta boric acid
b) Pyroboric acid
c) Tetra boric acid
d) Boric anhydride acid (B2O3)
69. Which of the following is used in photographic film?
a) MgBr2 b) NaCl
c) AgBr d) Na2S2O3
70. Aluminum does not react with HNO3 at any concentration and therefore HNO3 is transported in aluminum containers, this is due to formation of protective layer of
a) Cupric oxide b) Ferric oxide
c) Aluminum oxide d) Aluminum nitride
71. Action of aqua regia on noble metals is due to
a) HNO3 b) HCl
c) H2SO4 d) Chlorine
72. Phosgene is a poisonous gas, its chemical name is
a) Carbon dioxide b) Phosphonyl chloride
c) Carbon monoxide d) Carbonyl chloride
73. The maximum inert pair effect is shown by
a) B b) Al
c) Ga d) Tl
74. Quartz is the polymeric form of
a) (SiO2)n b) (CO2)n
c) (CH2 – CH2)n d) None of these
75. If a metal is protected by an oxide layer from further attack, the metal is said to be
a) Reactive b) Active
c) Passive d) Attractive
76. Carbon reacts with metals to form
a) Hydrides b) Oxides
c) Hydroxides d) Carbide
77. The control addition of III A and IV A members in Silicon and Germanium is known as
a) Inert pair effect b) Doping
c) Litharge d) Red lead
78. P – type of semi conductor are formed by mixing Silicon or Germanium with members of
a) III A b) IV A
c) V A d) VI A
79. Litharge is chemically
a) PbO b) PbO2
c) Pb3O4 d) Pb(CH3COO)
80. The Octet rule is not followed by
a) Boron on BCl3 b) Oxygen in H2O
c) Nitrogen in NH3 d) Phosphorus in PH3
81. Which of the following elements show
oxidation state of + 3 only?
a) B b) Ga
c) In d) Ti
82. ______ of the following is not metallic in
nature.
a) Boron b) Aluminum
c) Indium d) Thallium
83. The oxides of Boron are ______ in nature.
a) Acidic b) Basic
c) Neutral d) None of these
84. Orthoboric acid on heating to about 100oC
looses a water molecule to form ______
a) Metaboric acid
b) Pyroboric acid
c) Metaboric and pyroboric acid
d) None of these
85. The function of Fluorspar in the electrolytic
reduction of alumina dissolved in fused cryolite
(NA3 AlF6) is
a) As a catalyst
b) To lower the temperature of the melt and to
make the fused mixture conducting.
c) To decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon
at the anode.
d) None of the above
86. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) H3PO3 is dibasic and reducing
b) H3PO3 is tribasic and reducing
c) H3PO3 is tribasic and non – reducing
d) H3PO3 is dibasic and non – reducing
87. Boric acid is
a) Weak monobasic Lewis acid
b) Only weak monobasic Arhenius acid
c) Only weak monobasic Bronsted acid
d) Only weak tribasic Arrhenius acid
88. The reduction of metal oxides is sometimes
accomplished by using aluminum in the
______
a) Goldschmidt’s reaction
b) Silberchemdit’s reaction
c) Baeyer’s reaction
d) Zilch’s reaction
89. Hall’s process is based on electrolysis of
_____
a) Alumina b) Gypsum
c) Borax d) None of these
90. _______ is a better conductor of heat.
a) Fe b) Sn
c) Al d) None of these
91. Al2O3 formation involves evolution of a larger
quantity of heat which makes its uses in
_______
a) Deoxidizer b) Confectionary
c) Indoor photography d) Thermite welding
92. In the commercial electrochemical process fro
aluminum extraction, the electrolyte used is
a) Al(OH)3 in NaOH solution
b) An aqueous solution of Al2(SO4)3
c) A molten mixture of Al2O3 and Na3AlF6
d) A molten mixture of AlO(OH) and Al(OH)3
93. Borax is prepared by treating colemanite with
a) NaNO3 b) NaCl
c) NaHCO3 d) Na2CO3
94. Elements, which exist in two or more physical
or molecular forms, are called _______
a) Isotopes b) Allotropes
c) Isobars d) None of these
95. PbO behaves as a/an _______
a) Amphoteric oxide b) Basic oxide
c) Super oxide d) Sub oxide
96. The number and type of bonds between two
carbon atoms in CaC2 are
a) One sigma and one pi bond
b) One sigma and two pi bonds
c) One sigma and one and a half pi bond
d) One sigma bond
97. Aluminum is diagonally related to
a) Li b) Si
c) Be d) B
98. Which of the following halides is least stable
and has doubtful existence?
a) Cl4 b) SnI4
c) GeI4 d) PbI4
99. In which of the following phosphorus has an
oxidation state of + 4?
a) P4O6 b) P4O8
c) P4O9 d) None of these
CHAPTER # 4
Group V and VI Elements
1. Out of all the elements of group VA the highest
ionization energy is possessed.
(A) N (B) P
(C) Sb (D) Bi
2. In group VA elements the most
electronegative elements is.
(A) Sb (B) N
(C) P (D) As
3. Oxidation of NO in air produced.
(A) NO2 (B) N2O3
(C) N2O4 (D) N2O5
4. The brown gas is formed when metal reduces
HNO3
(A) N2O5 (B) N2O
(C) NO2 (D) NO
5. Laughing gas is chemically
(A) NO (B) N2O
(C) NO2 (D) N2O4
6. Out of all the elements of group IVA the highest melting and boiling point is shown by
the elements;
(A) Te (B) Se
(C) S (D) Pb
7. SO3 is not absorbed in water directly to form H2SO4 because.
\
(A) The reaction does not go to completion
(B) The reaction is quite slow
(C) The reaction is exothermic
(D) SO3 is insoluble in water
8. Which catalyst is used in contact process?
(A) Fe2O3 (B) V2O5
(C) SO3 (D) Ag2O
9. Which of the following specie has the maximum number of unpaired electrons.
(A) O2 (B) O2+
(C) O2- (D) O2-2
10. Nitrogen and phosphorus of group VA show the typical properties of
(A) Metals (B) Non-Metals
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
11. Arsenic and antimony are
(A) Metals (B) Non-Metal
(C) Metalloids (D) None of the above
12. The common valencies of the group VA
elements are
(A) Two to three (B) Three and five
(C) One and five (D) Two and four
13. Nitrogen is present in free state in air as a major constituent about.
(A) 58% (B) 38%
(C) 70% (D) 78%
14. Common oxides of nitrogen are
(A) N2O, NO and NO2
(B) NO, NO2
(C) N2O, NO2
(D) N2O, NO, NO2, N2O3 & N2O5
15. Di-Nitrogen oxide is a colourless gas.
(A) With a faint pleasant smell and a sweetish
taste.
(B) With unpleasant smell and bitter taste.
(C) With pleasant smell and bitter taste.
(D) With unpleasant smell and sweetish
16. Nitric acid is used for.
(A) Making varnishes and Organic dyes
(B) For making organic dyes
(C) Making varnishes
(D) For making varnishes, organic dyes,
explosives nitrogen fertilizers etc.
17. Allotropes of phosphorus are of
(A) Three types (B) Four types
(C) Two types (D) Six different types
18. In combined state nitrogen is found in all living
matter including.
(A) Animals and plants as proteins urea and
amino acids.
(B) In plants only
(C) In animals only
(D) None of the above
19. All the elements of grown VIA are non-metals
except.
(A) S (sulphur) (B) O (oxygen )
(C) PO (pollinium ) (D) Te (tellurium)
20. In group VIA the radioactive metal is
(A) Te (tellurium) (B) O (oxygen)
(C) N (nitrogen) (D) None of the above
21. Oxygen has allotropic forms such as.
(A) Three (B) Four
(C) Two (D) Five
22. Oxygen is comprising about .
(A) 30% of earth's crust
(B) 20% of earth's crust
(C) 10% of earth's crust
(D) 50% of earth's crust
23. In the atmosphere the free oxygen occurs about
(A) 1/3 of the atmospheric air
(B) 1/2 of the atmospheric air
(C) 1/4 of the atmospheric air
(D) 2/3 of the atmospheric air
24. Water contains nearly combined form of oxygen
(A) 50% (B) 70%
(C) 30% (D) 89%
25. Sulphur exist as
(A) Free and combined state
(B) Only in free state
(C) Combined state
(D) None of the above
26. Which of the following possesses melting point
below 0˚C?
a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus
c) Carbon d) Bismuth
27. Formation of H2SO4 by Contact process is an
example of ________
a) Homogenous equilibrium
b) Heterogenous equilibrium
c) Sulphonation
d) Dilution
28. Which of the following does not contain
phosphorus?
a) Yolk of egg b) Bone
c) Nerves d) Steel
29. Which of the following elements can follow
extended octet rule?
a) P b) C
c) B d) N
30. The composition of brown ring in nitrate test is
________
a) FeSO4.NO b) FeSO4.NO2
c) FeSO4.NO3 d) None of above
31. Which one of the following compounds smells like garlic?
a) P2O3 b) P2O5
c) H3PO3 d) All have same smell
32. All the elements in group VIA are______________
a) Hygroscopic b) Metals
c) Polymeric d) All of above
33. Phosphoric acid is a weak acid and its basicity
is_______
a) 1 b) 3
c) Zero d) 1 & 3
34. The nitrogen gas present in air is
a) More b) Less reactive
b) Non reactive d) Moderatory reactive
35. The properties of Nitrogen is different from other members of its group to
a) Small atomic size and high E.N
b) Single screening shell
c) Absence of d – orbital in the valence shell
d) All of these
36. Nitrogen can not as a central metal atom in a complex because it can not
a) Devote electrons b) Accepts electrons
c) Form an ion d) All of these
37. Which oxides of nitrogen exist in solid state?
a) N2O b) NO
c) NO2 d) N2O5
38. The test which is used to confirm the presence of nitrate is
a) Silver minor test b) Ring test
c) Tollen’s test d) Baeyer’s test
39. Nitric oxide has
a) Unpaired electrons
b) Odd number of electrons
c) Paramagnetic
d) All of these
40. Mixture of HNO3 and NO2 is called
a) con HNO3 b) dil HNO3
c) fuming HNO3 d) HNO3
41. Which one PX5 is unknown?
a) PCl5 b) PBr5
c) PF5 d) Pl5
42. Orthophosphorous acid is a
a) Monobasic acid b) Dibasic acid
c) Tribasic acid d) Base
43. Galena is an ore of
a) S b) Te
c) Po d) Mg
44. White phosphorous occurs in the form of
a) Monoatomic molecule
b) Diatomic molecules
c) Triatomic molecules
d) Tetra atomic molecules
45. The acid which has garlic like smell and is crystalline deliquescent is
a) H2SO4 b) HCl
b) H3BO3 d) HNO3
46. The acid which forms three series of salt is
a) H2SO4 b) H3BO3
c) H3PO4 d) HNO3
47. Removal of arsenic oxide is very essential because it acts as a
a) Catalyst b) Activator
c) Catalytic poison d) Co-enzyme
48. The structure of H2SO4 is
a) Trigonal b) Octahedral
c) Tetrahedral d) Hexagonal
49. Which pair does not produce H2 gas?
a) Cu and Con HNO3
b) C2H5OH and Na metal
c) Mg and steam
d) Phenol and sodium metal
50. Why it is difficult to form nitrogen compounds from gaseous nitrogen
a) All its reactions are endothermic
b) The bond dissociation
c) It contain triple bond
d) Its first ionization energy is very high
51. The elements which is essential in nitrogen fixation is
a) Zn b) Mo
c) Fe d) S
52. Which one act as a free radical?
a) CO2 b) CH4
c) NO d) BF3
53. The starting material in Birkland and Eyde process for manufacturing of HNO3 is
a) NH3 b) NO2
c) Air d) NaNO3
54. In making safety matches we use
a) White phosphorus
b) Gray phosphorus
c) Violet phosphorus
d) Red phosphorus
55. Which is most stable isotope of sulphur?
a) Plastic sulphur b) Monoclinic sulphur
c) Rhombic sulphur d) Colloidal sulphur
56. Consider
NH4NO3 Product
The product formed is
a) N2O b) N2
c) NO d) N2O3
57. The product formed by heating mixture of NO and NO2 are
a) N2O5 b) N2O4
c) N2O d) N2O3
58. Nitric oxide is prepared by the action of HNO3
on
a) Fe b) Cu
c) Zn d) Sn
59. On industrial scale Nitric acid is prepared by
_______
a) Dutch Process
b) Birkland-Eyde’s Process
c) Solvay’s Process
d) Down’s Process
60. In Ostwald’s Process the substance used to
oxide ammonia is ______
a) Zn b) Pt
c) CO d) None of these
61. Copper reacts with dilute nitric acid to form
a) Nitric oxide b) Nitrogen peroxide
c) Nitrous Oxide d) None of these
62. By _______ process the H2SO4 produced is
pure and can be produced of any desired
strength.
a) Lead Chamber Process
b) Contact Process
c) Down’s Cell
d) None of these
63. Concentrated sulphuric acid acts as a ______
a) Reducing agent b) Oxidizing agent
c) Dehydrating agent d) None of these
64. In group VI A highest electronegativity is for
a) S b) O
c) Pb d) Se
65. Rhombic sulphur consists of _______
a) S8 chain b) S2 chains
c) S4 rings d) S8 rings
66. The number of hydroxyl group in
phrophosphoric acid is
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 7
67. When liquid sulphur at one atmospheric
pressre is very slowly cooled, unless super
cooling occurs, the first solid to appear is
_______
a) Monoclinic sulphur b) Rhombic sulphur
c) Hexagonal sulphur d) Metallic sulphur
68. _______ is obtained when ammonium
dichromate is refrigerant?
a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen
c) Ammonia d) None
69. Which compound acts as an oxidizing as well
as a reducing agent?
a) SO2 b) MnO2
c) Al2O3 d) CrO3
70. Which of the following acids does not involve
S – S bond?
a) Phyrosulphrous acid
b) Dichotomous acid
c) Dichotic acid
d) Pyrosulphuric acid
71. Oleum is formed by combining H2SO4 with
a) SO2 b) SO3
c) S d) H2S
72. When SO2 is passed through an acidified
KMnO4 solution
a) KMnO4 is oxidized
b) KMnO4 is reduced
c) SO2 is reduced
d) KMnO4 solution turns green
CHAPTER # 5
Halogens and Noble Gases
1. Which is the most volatile compound?
(A) HI (B) HCI
(C) HBr (D) HF
2. Which one is the anhydride of HCIO4 ?
(A) CI2O (B) CIO2
(C) CI2O6 (D) CI2O7
3. Which of the following halogens does not form its oxyacids ?
(A) Fluorine (B) Chlorine
(C) Bromine (D) Iodine
4. Bromine is obtained on a commercial scale from
(A) Caliche (B) Carnallite
(C) Common salt (D) Cryolite.
5. Iodine deficiency in diet is known to cause
(A) Beriberi (B) Goitre
(C) Rickets (D) Night blindness
6. Which one of the halogen acid is a liquid ?
(A) HF (B) HCI
(B) HBr (D) HI.
7. Which of the following acid is weakest
(A) HCIO (B) HBr
(C) HCIO3 (D) HCI.
8. In which of the following, oxygen has +2 oxidation number ?
(A) F2O (B) CI2O
(C) Na2O2 (D) Na2O.
9. Fluorine does not show positive oxidation states due to the absence of
(A) d-orbitals (B) s-orbitals
(C) p-orbitals (D) None
10. Which of the following has greatest reducing
power?
(A) HI (B) HBr
(C) HCI (D) HI.
11. Bad conductor of electricity is
(A) H2F2 (B) HCI
(C) HBr (D) HI
12. Bleaching power is obtained by the action chlorine gas and
(A) Dilute solution of Ca(OH)2
(B) Concentrated solution of Ca(OH)2
(C) Dry CaO
(D) Dry slaked lime.
13. Mark the element which shows only one oxidation state in its compounds
(A) F (B) CI
(C) Br (B) I.
14. Which of the following halogens has the highest bond energy ?
(A) F2 (B) CI2
(C) Br2 (D) I2.
15. Which halogen is most electropositive ?
(A) F (B) CI
(C) Br (D) I.
16. Which one of the following is the true covalent
oxide of iodine ?
(A) I2O4 (B) I2O5
(B) I2O7 (D) I2O9
17. Which of the following halogen oxides is ionic?
(A) CIO2 (B) BrO2
(C) I2O5 (D) I4O9
18. Which of the following hydrogen halide has the
highest boiling point ?
(A) HF (B) HCI
(C) HBr (D) HI.
19. Which of the following is a false statement ?
(A) Hydrogens are strong oxidizing agents
(B) Halogens show only –1 oxidation state
(C) HF molecules form intermolecular
hydrogen bonding
(D) Fluorine is highly reactive.
20. As the atomic number of halogens increases, the halogens
(A) Lose the outermost electrons less readily
(B) Become lighter in colour
(C) Become less denser
(D) Gain electrons less readily.
21. Which statement is correct about halogens ?
(A) They are all diatomic and form univalent
ions
(B) They are all capable of exhibiting several
oxidation states
(C) They are all diatomic and form divalent ion
(D) They can mutually displace each other
from the solution of their compounds with
metals.
22. Which has the highest molar heat of vaporization ?
(A) HF (B) HCI
(C) HBr (D) HI.
23. Which one of the following reacts with glass ?
(A) H2SO4 (B) HF
(C) HNO3 (D) K2Cr2O7
24. Strongest hydrogen bonding is shown by
(A) Water (B) Ammonia
(C) Hydrogen fluoride (D) Hydrogen sulphide.
25. Fluorine is a better oxidizing agent than Br2. It is due to
(A) Small size of fluorine
(B) More electron repulsion in fluorine
(C) More eletronegativity of fluorine
(D) Non metallic nature of fluorine.
26. The element which liberated O2 from water is
(A) P (B) N
(C) F (D) I.
27. Ozonised oxygen can be obtained from H2O by the action of
(A) Conc. H2SO4 (B) KMnO4
(C) MnO (D) F2
28. Which one of the following is most basic ?
(A) F- (B) CI-
(C) Br- (D) I-
29. Which one of the following elements can have both positive and negative oxidation state?
(A) F (B) I
(C) Li (D) He.
30. Least chemical activity is shown by
(A) NH3 (B) CH4
(C) Ar (D) H2SO4.
31. In discharge tube, noon glows
(A) Bluish (B) Reddish
(C) Pinkish (D) Greenish
32. Xef2 molecule is
(A) Linear (B) Trigonal planar
(C) Pyramidal (D) Square planar.
33. The forces acting between noble gas atoms are
(A) Vander Waals forces
(B) Ion-dipole forces
(C) London disperslon forces
(D) Magnetic forces.
34. Percentage of Ar in air is about
(A) 1% (B) 2%
(C0 3% (D) 4%
35. The structure of XeF6 is
(A) Distorted octahedral
(B) Pyramidal
(C) Tetrahedral
(D) None of the above
36. The noble gas was first time discovered by
(A) Cavendish (B) William Ramsay
(C) Lockyer (D) Frankland.
37. The coloured discharge tubes for advertisement mainly contain
(A) Xenon (B) Helium
(B) Neon (D) ARGON
38. Which of the following noble gases does not have an octet of electrons in its outermost
shell ?
(A) Neon (B) Radon
(C) Argon (D) Helium
39. The lowest boiling point of helium is due to its
(A) Inertness
(B) Gaseous nature
(C) High Polaris ability
(D) Weak Vander Waals forces b/w atoms
40. Which member of group VII A combines with one more halogen?
a) Cl b) F
c) Br d) I
41. The interhalogen formed by iodine requires fluorine atoms
a) 3 b) 5
c) 7 d) 8
42. Which one halogen directly reacts with noble gas?
a) F b) Cl
c) Br d) I
43. Which type of interhalogenis formed by Bromine?
a) Br – Cl b) Br – F3
b) Br – F5 d) Br – I 7
44. Iodine occurs as iodate in
a) Chile salt peter b) Clauber’s salt
c) Blue vitriol d) Oil of vitriol
45. Which one hydride has greater ionic character and had H – bond?
a) HF b) HBr
c) HCl d) HI
46. Chlorine reacts with hot solution of NaOH to form
a) NaCl b) NaClO3
c) NaClO d) All of these
47. Fluorine directly combines with noble gases
a) Kr b) Xe
c) Rn d) All of these
48. The density of pure liquid HF is less then water due to
a) Covalent bond formations
b) High electron affinity
c) Absence of three dimensional net work of H – bond
d) Presence of three dimensional net work of H – bond
49. The order of increasing dissociation of HX at 1000oC is
a) HI (33%) > HBr (0.5%) > HCl (0.014%) > HF (0%)
b) HBr > HI > HF > HCl
c) HCl > HBr > HI > HF
d) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
50. The halogen which form unstable oxides is
a) F b) Cl
c) Br d) I
51. The most recently prepared oxyacid of halogen is
a) HOCl b) HBrO3
c) HIO d) HOF
52. The increasing order of acidity and oxidizing power of Oxyacids due to increasing number of oxygen atoms is
a) HXO > HXO2 > HXO3 > HXO4
b) HXO4 > HXO3 > HXO2 > HXO
c) HXO3 > HXO2 > HXO4 > HXO
d) None of these
53. The average available chlorine in bleaching powder is
a) 30 – 35% b) 35 – 40%
c) 40 – 45% d) 45 – 50%
54. Which one is false for bleaching powder?
a) Highly soluble in water
b) Light yellow color powder
c) Oxidizing agent
d) Release Cl2 gas by reaction with dilute acids
55. Sea weeds are important sources of
a) F b) Cl
c) Br d) I
56. The acid used for etching glass is
a) HCl b) HF
c) HNO3 d) HClO4
57. Which one interhalogen can further combine with fluorine?
a) F – Cl b) ClF3
c) BrF5 d) IF5
58. Which statement is true?
a) Except F2O, the oxides of all halogen are endothermic compounds
b) The higher oxides of halogen are more stable than lower oxides
c) The bond in the halogen oxides are largely covalent due to similarities in electronegativity
d) All of these
59. Iodine is highly soluble in
a) Solution of Kl b) Alcohol
c) CS2 d) All of these
60. HF is not preserved in glass bottle because
a) It reacts with SiO2 of the glass
b) It reacts with the Al2O3 of the composition
c) It reacts with the Na2O of the composition
d) It reacts with the visible part of light
61. Fluorine can be transported in a special container made up of
a) Aluminum b) Steel
c) Glass d) Carbon steel
62. Chlorine can be easily liquefied and is usually marketed in
a) Steel cylinders
b) Iron cylinders
c) Carbon steel cylinders
d) Glass cylinders
63. Halogen do not occur free in nature because they
a) Are salt producer
b) Are highly reactive
c) Has seven electrons in their valence shell
d) Are non metals
64. Xenon trioxide is formed by
a) Hydrolysis of xenon hexafluoride
b) Hydrolysis of barium per xenate
c) Hydrolysis of xeondifloride
d) None of these
65. The known fluorides of xenon are
a) XeF2 b) XeF4
c) XeF6 d) All of the above
66. Mixture of 80% helium and 20% oxygen is used for
a) Breathing air by seas divers
b) Breathing by patient
c) Breathing by fishes
d) All of these
67. Tyres of large aeroplane contain
a) He b) Ne
c) Ar d) Kr
68. Which xenon fluoride is impossible?
a) XeF2 b) XeF4
c) XeF6 d) XeF3
69. The type of hybridization does the oxygen has in OF2 is
a) SP2 b) d2SP3
c) SP3 d) dSP3
70. The gas that will liquefy with most difficulty is
a) He b) CO2
c) NH3 d) SO2
71. Which of the following is radioactive?
a) Cl b) Br
c) I d) At
72. The electron affinity of halogens is of the order
a) F < Cl > Br > I b) F < Cl < Br < I
c) Cl < F < Br < I d) I < Br < F < Cl
73. Which of the following hydride of halogen is
thermally most stable?
a) HF b) HCl
c) HBr d) HI
74. In which of the following bromine has an
oxidation state of + 4?
a) Br2O b) BrO2
c) BrO3 d) None
75. Electrolysis of Brine produces _______
a) Chlorine b) Oxygen
c) H2S d) Nitrogen
76. In which of the following oxyacids, chlorine has
an oxidation state of +3?
a) HClO b) HClO2
c) HClO3 d) HClO4
77. The process based on the oxidation of
hydrochloric acid with oxygen is ______
a) Nelson’s cell b) Contact process
c) Down’s process d) Deacon’s process
78. Chlorine gas is ______ in color.
a) Yellow b) Greenish Yellow
c) Violet d) Blue
79. To kill bacterial, moist of the drinking water is
treated with _______
a) Nitrogen b) Carbon dioxide
c) Chlorine d) Hydrogen sulphide
80. Phosgene is the common name of _______
a) Carbon dioxide and phosphate
b) Phosphoryle chloride
c) Carbonyle chloride
d) Carbon tetrachloride
81. Hydrofluoride acid is _________
a) A powerful oxidizing agent
b) A weak acid
c) A strong acid
d) A good reducing agent
82. Bleaching powder is obtained by the
interaction of Cl2 and _______
a) Slaked lime
b) Conc. Solution of Mg(OH)2
c) Dry CaO
d) Dry slaked lime
83. The element which liberates O2 form water is
a) P b) N
c) F d) I
84. Which forms maximum compounds with
xenon?
a) F b) Cl
c) Br d) I
85. Which of the following rare gases is not
present in the atmosphere?
a) He b) Xe
c) Kr d) Rn
86. The structure of XeOF4 is
a) Tetrahedral b) Square pyramidal
c) Distorted d) Irregular pentagonal
87. Which of the following fluorides of xenon is not
observed?
a) Xef b) XeF2
c) XeF4 d) XeF6
CHAPTER # 6.
Transition Elements
1. Which of the following is a non-typical transition element ?
(A) Cr (B) Mn
(C) Zn (D) Fe
2. Which of the following is a typical transition metal ?
(A) Sc (B) Y
(C) Ra (D) Co
3. f-block elements are so called.
(A) Non-typical transition element
(B) Outer transition elements
(C) Normal transition elements
(D) Inner transition
4. The strength of binding energy of transition
elements depends upon
(A) Number of electron pairs
(B) Number of unpaired electrons
(C) Number of neutrons
(D) Number of protons
5. Group VIB of transition elements contains
(A) Zn, Cd , Hg (B) Fe, Ru, Os
(C) Cr, Mo, W (D) Mn, Te, Re
6. Which is the formula of tetra-amine chloro nitro platinum (IV) sulphate ?
(A) [Pt(NH3)4(NO2)]SO4
(B) [Pt NO2CI (NH3)4]SO4
(C) [Pt CI (NO2)(NH3)]SO4
(D) [Pt (NH3)4(NO2)CI]SO4
7. The percentage of carbon in different types of iron products is in the order of .
(A) Cast iron > wrought iron > steel
(B) wrought iron > steel > cast iron
(C) cast iron > steel > wrought iron
(D) cast iron = steel > wrought iron
8. The colour of transition metal complexes is due to.
(A) d-d transitions of electrons
(B) Para magnetic nature of transition element
(C) Ionization
(D) Loss of s-electrons
9. Coordination number of Pt in
[t CI (NO2)(NH3)4]-2 is.
(A) 2- (B) 4
(C) 1 (D) 6
10. The total number of transition elements is.
(A) 10 (B) 14
(C) 40 (D) 50
11. Transition metals have very high melting and
boiling points due to.
(A) Weak binding forces
(B) Strong binding forces
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
12. Substances which are weakly attracted by which type of force are called as paramagnetic
substances.
(A) Weak magnetic field
(B) Strong magnetic field
(C) Feeble magnetic field
(D) None of the above
13. The diamagnetic substances are
(A) Weakly repelled by a strong magnetic field
(B) Strongly repelled by a weak magnetic field
(C) Strongly repelled by a weak magnetic field
(D) Weakly repelled by a weak magnetic field.
14. Paramagnetic behaviour is caused by the
presence of.
(A) Unparied electrons
(B) Paired electrons
(C) Paired protons
(D) Paired electrons in an aton, molecule or
ion
15. The transition elements includes.
(A) Ti, Fe, Cr, Ni, Cu etc
(B) Ti, Fe, Nb, Ta, Th, etc
(C) Mo, W, Zr, Nb, etc
(D) Ti, Fe, Ci, Ni, Cu, Mo, W, Zr, Nb, Ta, Th, etc
16. Zn has
(A) Zero unpaired electrons
(B) Five unpaired electrons
(C) Three unpaired electrons
(D) One paired electrons
17. In transition elements the orbital which is
responsible for the colour development is.
(A) s-orbital (B) f-orbital
(C) d-orbital (D) o-orbital
18. In [Ti (H2O6)]3+ which wavelength of light is
absorbed.
(A) Yellow light is absorbed while blue and red light are transmitted
(B) Green light is absorbed
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
19. Alloy steels are
(A) Iron atoms substituted by Cr, Mn, and Ni
atoms
(B) Iron atoms substituted by Cr, and Mn
atoms
(C) Iron atoms substituted by Mn and Ni atoms
(D) None of the above
20. Such compounds containing the complex
molecules or complex ions and capable of.
(A) Dependent existence are called
coordination compounds
(B) Independent existence are called
coordination compound
(C) None of the above
(D) A & B
21. A complex compound may contain
(A) Simple catoins and a complexions
(B) A complex cations and a simple anion
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
22. The nomenclature of complex compounds is based upon the recommendation by the
(A) Inorganic Nomenclature Committee
(IUPAC)
(B) Organic Nomenclature Committee (IUPAC)
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
23. In writing the formula of a complex ion the usual practice is to place the symbol of the
(A) Central metal atom second
(B) Central metal atom third
(C) Central metal atom 4rth
(D) Central metal atom 1st
24. Pig iron or cast iron contains
(A) 0.25% to 2.5% carbon
(B) 2.5% to 4.5% carbon
(C) 0.12% to 0.25% carbon
(D) None of the above
25. Wrought iron is manufactured from
(A) Pig iron (B) Cast iron
(C) Pig iron or cast iron (D) Steel
26. In open hearth process for the manufacturing of steel.
(A) Using cast iron, wrought iron, or steel
scrap
(B) Using cast iron
(C) just wrought iron
(D) None of the above
27. In galvanic cell.
(A) Al does not releases electrons and
changes to al+3 ion
(B) Ai releases and changes to Al+3 ion
(C) Both of the above
(D) Both of the above
28. The amount of iron destroyed each year by
corrosion equal to.
(A) About 1/4th of its annual production
(B) About 1/3rd of its annual production
(C\) Both 1/2nd of its annual production
(D) None of the above
29. Almost all the chromates are
(A) Blue in colour (B) Green in colour
(C) Red in colour (D) Yellow in colour
30. K2Cr2O7(potassium dichromate) is used
extensively for.
(A) Dyeing
(B) Chrome tanning
(C) As an oxidizing agent
(D) All of the above are true
31. The location of transition elements is in
between_________
a. Lanthanides & actinides
b. s and p block elements
c. chalcogens and halogens
d. d and f block elements
32. Compounds attracted by applied magnetic field are called________
a) Diamagnetic b) Paramagnetic
c) Good conductor d) Ferromagnetic
33. When light is exposed to transition element, then electrons jumps from lower orbitals to
higher orbitals in___________
a) f-orbitals b) s-orbitals
c) p-orbitals d) d-orbitals
34. The specie which donates electrons to central
metal atom in co-ordination sphere is called
________
a) Anion b) Cation
c) Ligand d) Acid
35. Following ion is a bidentate Ligand?
a) Ammonia b) Oxalate
c) Carbonyl d) Cyanide
36. The central atom along with Ligand is called ________
a) Complex ion b) Coordination sphere
c) Ligand d) Complex compound
37. Geometry of complex compounds depends
upon_________
a) no. of ligand
b) no. of chelates
c) hybridization of central metal
d) All of above
38. For sp3d2 hybridization, the expected geometry will be_________
a) Tetrahydral b) Square planar
c) Trigonal bipyramidal d) Octahedral
39. Any process of chemical decay of metals due to action of surrounding medium is called
_________
a) Surrounding b) Enamel
c) Corrosion d) Coating
40. When an active metal like Al come in contact with less active element like Cu, then it
produces _____
a) Voltaic cell b) Galvanic cell
c) Electrolytic cell d) a & b
41. Which element has complete d – orbital are
a) Ni b) Fe
c) Zn d) Mn
42. In Ag2+ the number of electrons in 4 d orbital is
a) 7 b) 8
c) 6 d) 9
43. A regular decrease in ionic and atomic radii across the lanthanides is called
a) Contraction
b) I.P
c) Lanthanide Contraction
d) Complex formation
44. The magnetic moment can be measured by
a) Gouy’s balance b) Haber’s balance
c) Down’s balance d) All of these
45. The magnetic moment is related to the number of unpaired electrons (n) by the equation
a) b)
c) d)
46. Diamagnetic compounds are those which have
a) Paired electrons b) Unpaired electrons
c) Free electrons d) No electrons
47. An extreme case of Para magnetism is called
a) Diamagnetism b) Ferro magnetism
c) Isomerism d) None of these
48. The number of ligands attached to the central metal atom or ion, usually varying from
a) 2 to 3 b) 2 to 4
c) 2 to 6 d) 2 to 7
49. Co-ordinate compound with co-ordinate six number have geometry
a) Tetrahedral
b) Square planner
c) May be tetrahedral or square planner
d) Octahedral
50. Steel is an alloy of iron and is classified into
a) Mild steel (0.1 – 0.2%C) and medium carbon steel (0.2 to 0.7%C)
b) Medium carbon steel (0.2 to 0.7%C) and high carbon steel (0.7 to 1.5%C)
c) Mild and high carbon steel
d) Mild medium and high carbon steel
51. Ligands are classified into
a) One b) Two
c) Three d) Five
52. EDTA is
a) Monodentate b) Bidentate
c) Polydentate d) None of these
53. Which one is Bidentate ligand
a) Cl-1 b) NH3
c) NH2(CH2), NH2 d) EDTA
54. Complexes which are less common have co-ordination number
a) 4 b) 5
c) 6 d) All of these
55. Complexes which have octahedral geometry hybridized
a) SP3 b) dSP2
c) dSP3 d) d2SP3
56. The geometry of a complex depends upon
a) Co-ordination number
b) Type of hybridization of central metal atom
c) Chelates
d) Both a & b
57. Brass contain 20% zinc and
a) 80% Cu b) 70% Cu
c) 60% Cu d) 50% Cu
58. Bell metal contains
a) 80% Cu + 20% Zn
b) 80% Cu + 20% Sn
c) 20% Cu + 80% Zn
d) 20% Cu + 80% Sn
59. The formula of blue vitriol is
a) CuSO4 b) CuSO4.3H2O
c) CuSO4.4H2O d) CuSO4.5H2O
60. The transition elements usually have very
______ melting and boiling points.
a) Low b) High
c) Intermediate d) None of these
61. Finely divided iron is used in _______
a) Haber process
b) Catalytic Hydrogenation
c) Oxidation of ammonia to nitric oxide
d) Contact process
62. ________ reagent can be used to identify
Cu2+ ion.
a) Nitric acid b) Sulphuric acid
c) Sodium hydroxide d) Potassium dichromate
63. _______ is the important ore of copper.
a) Malachite b) Bauxite
c) Blue Vitriol d) Alumina
64. Titanium is used as catalyst in _______
a) Haber process
b) Catalytic hydrogenation
c) Oxidation of ammonia to nitric acid
d) Polymerization of ethyle into polyethylene
65. An adding KI to a solution of CuSO4
a) Cupric oxide is precipitated
b) Metallic copper is precipitated
c) Cuprous iodide is precipitated with the
liberation of iodine
d) No change takes place
66. In Cr2O72 every Cr atom is linked to
a) Two O atoms b) Three O atoms
c) Four O atoms d) Five O atoms
67. A substance which have even number of
electrons and have paired spin is called
______
a) Ferromagnetic b) Paramagnetic
c) Dimagnetic d) None of these
68. The empty spaces between atoms of transition
metals in their crystal lattices are called _____
a) Vacant spaces b) Valence spaces
c) Interstices d) None of these
69. [Ni(CN)4]2- is an example of ________
a) Square planar
b) Tetrahedral complexes
c) Octahedral complexes
d) None of these
70. [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is an example of _______
a) Square planar
b) Tetrahedral complexes
c) Octahedral complexes
d) None of these
71. [Co(NH3)6]3+ is an example of _______
a) Square planar
b) Tetrahedral complexes
c) Octahedral complexes
d) None of these
72. The names of ______ are usually unchanged.
a) Anionic ligands b) Cationic ligands
c) Neutral ligands d) None of these
73. The suffix “ate” at the end of the name of the
coordinate complex ion represents a/an
______
a) Cation b) Anion
c) Cathode b) Anode
74. Ferric oxide is _______
a) A basic anhydride
b) An acid anhydride
c) An amphoteric anhydride
d) Green in colour
75. The most strongly ferromagnetic element is
_______
a) Fe b) Co
c) Ni d) Os
76. The property of a substance which permits it
being drawn into wire is called ________
a) Softness b) Ductility
c) Brittleness d) Hardness
77. When potassium permanganate is added to a
saturated aqueous solution of potassium
hydroxide, _______ gas is evolved.
a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide d) None of these
78. AgCl dissolves in u solution of NH3 but not in
water because;
a) NH3 is a better solvent than H2O
b) Ag+ forms a complex ion with NH3
c) NH3 is a stronger base than H2O
d) Dipole moment of water is higher than NH3
79. Which of the following is deliquescent?
a) ZnCl2 b) Hg2Cl2
c) HdCl2 d) HgCl2
80. CrO3 dissolves in aqueous NaOH to give
a) b) Cr(OH)2
c) d) Cr(OH)3
81. Iron obtained from the blast furnace is called
a) Pig iron b) Cast iron
c) Wrought iron d) Steel
CHAPTER # 7
Fundamental Principles of Organic Chemistry
1. The state of hybridization of carbon atom in
methane is
(A) Sp3 (B) Sp2
(C) Sp (D) dsP2
2. In t-butyl alcohol, the tertiary carbon is bonded to
(A) Two hydrogen atoms
(B) Three hydrogen atoms
(C) One hydrogen atoms
(D) No hydrogen atoms
3. Which set of hybrid orbitals has planar triangular shape
(A) Sp3 (B) Sp
(C) Sp2 (D) dsp2
4. The chemist who synthesized urea from ammonium cyanate was
(A) Berzelius (B) Kolbe
(C) Wholer (D) Lavoisier
5. Linear shape is associated with which set of hybrid orbitals ?
(A) Sp (B) Sp2
(C) Sp3 (D) dsp2
6. A double bond consists of.
(A) Two sigma bond
(B) One sigma and one pi bond
(C) One sigma and two pi bond
(D) Two pi-bond
7. Ethers show the phenomenon of
(A) Position isomerism
(B) Functional group isomerism
(C) Metamerism
(D) Cis-trans isomerism.
8. Select from the following the one which is alcohol.
(A) CH3 --------CH2--------OH
(B) CH3---------O-----------CH3
(C) CH3COOH
(D) CH3--------CH2--------Br
9. Early chemists recognized organic compounds
distinct from inorganic compounds because of
(A) The difference in their origin and
properties
(B) The similarities in their origin but
difference in their propertied
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
10. The vital force theory was rejected by
A) Jhon Dalton B) Friedrick Wohler
C) Dmitri Mendeleev D) None of the above
11. We have become dependent for our food
medicines and clothing to which compounds.
(A) Inorganic compounds
(B) Organic compounds
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
12. Natural Gas is a
(A) Mixture of hydrocarbons
(B) Methane
(C) Both of the above
(D) Nonn of the above
13. In Pakistan the natural gas is used for.
(A) For power generation only
(B) In coment and fertilizer industries only
(C) As a fuel in general industries and for
domestic purposes
(D) All of the above are truce
14. At what temperature coal is heated in the observe of air for converting it into coke, coal
gas, and coal tar
(A) Temperature ranging from 500-1000oC
(B) Temperature ranging from 100-1000oC
(C) Temperature ranging from 300-2000oC
(D) Temperature ranging from 1000-3000oC
15. Cracking of petroleum is taken place by
A) Thermal cracking B) Catalytic cracking
C) Steam cracking D) All of the above
16. The structure of alkynes can be explained by yet another mode of hybridization called as
(A) Sp2 hybridization
(B) Sp3 hybridization
(C) Sp5 hybridization
(D) Sp hybridization
17. Metamerism aries due to the.
(A) Equal distribution of carbon atoms
(B) Unequal distribution of carbon atoms
(C) Both of the above are true
(D) None of the above are true
18. Cis-trans isomerism is also called as
(A) Geometric Isomerism
(B) Position Isomerism
(C) Chain Isomerism
(D) Metamerism
19. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are important
sources of.
(A) Organic compounds
(B) Inorganic compounds
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
20. Organic compounds are classified into
(A) Acyclic and cyclic compound
(B) Acyclic & Heterocyclic
(C) Non-cyclic
(D) All of the above
21. Rate of reactions of most organic compounds
are___________
a) Very slow
b) Very fast
c) Medium
d) No regular character present
22. Coal is produced after a long time decay of
__________
a) Animals b) Fossils
c) Wood d) Ores
23. Ether functional group can be represented
as____________
a) –OH b) R-CO-R
c) R-O-R d) R-COOH
24. 2-propanol can show isomerism as _______
a) Metamerism
b) Functional group isomerism
c) Geometric isomerism
d) None of above
25. The hydrocarbons which give smoke on burning is called________
a) Aliphatic b) Aromatic
c) Carboxylic acid d) Aldehydes
26. In sp3 hybridization, the geometry of molecules will be_________
a) Square planar b) Trigonal pyramidal
c) Tetrahedral d) All are possible
27. Only sigma bonds are present in _______
a) Propene b) Butanoic acid
c) Butanal d) Ethoxy butane
28. In alkyne, the hybridization is____________
a) sp2 b) sp
c) sp d) All
29. Octane no. of any fuel can be improved by ______
a) Pyrolysis b) Reforming
c) Polymerization d) Condensation
30. The fuel having 40% n-heptane & 60% iso-octane will have octane number
a) 40 b) 60
c) 80 d) 90
31. Which of them is heterocyclic organic compound?
a) Benzene b) Cresol
c) Naphthalene d) Pyridine
32. Which one is the mixture of 215 organic compounds?
a) Water gas b) Coal gas
c) Coal tar d) Crude coal gas
33. Octane number is the percentage of
a) n-pentane in a mixture
b) n-butane in a mixture
c) n-hexane in a mixture
d) 2, 2, 4 – trimethyl pentane in a mixture
34. During the fractional distillation of petroleum, paraffin oil boils between the ranges
a) 25oC b) 40 – 180oC
c) 175 – 275oC d) 220 – 350oC
35. The octane number of gasoline may increased by adding
a) EDTA b) NaOH
c) AgNO3 d) PB(C2H5)4
36. Which process increases the yield of gasoline from petroleum?
a) Cracking b) Polymerization
c) Reforming d) Sublimation
37. Consider the reaction
3C2H2 C6H6
This is the example of
a) Pyrolysis b) Polymerization
c) Sublimation d) Addition
38. Which one is acyclic hydrocarbon?
a) C6H6 b) C2H6
c) C6H12 d) CH4
39. Which type of isomerism is shown by the following compounds?
CH3 – CH2 – CHO, CH3 – CO – CH3
a) Chain isomerism
b) Position isomerism
c) Metamerism
d) Functional group isomerism
40. The type of isomerism found in 1 – butene and 2 – butane is
a) Position b) Chain
c) Functional group d) Metamerism
41. The members of which of these have similar methods of preparation and properties
a) Isomers b) Homologues
c) Polymers d) Monomers
42. The maximum number of isomers for an alkene with molecular formula C4H8 is
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
43. Which of the following is most stable ion?
a) CH3 – H2C+ b) (CH3)2 HC+
c) (CH3)3 C+ d) All of these
44. Which of the following is not an organic compound?
a) Urea b) Oxalic acid
c) Natural gas d) Plaster of Paris
45. Kerosine oil is a mixture of
a) Alkane b) Alkene
c) Alkynes d) All of these
46. Which of the following compounds does not contain an OH group?
a) Alcohol b) Phenol
c) Aldehyde d) Carboxylic acid
47. The chemical formula of chloride is
a) CH3OH b) CCl3OH
c) CCl3CHO d) None of these
48. Petroleum in the unrefined form is called ____
a) Rock oil b) Coal gas
c) Crude oil d) Both a & c
49. Natural gas mainly consists of ________
a) Methane b) Ethane
c) Propane d) Butane
50. _______ is a mixture of methane, ethane,
propane and butane, used as a fuel and for
making other organic chemicals.
a) Refinery gas b) Gasoline
c) Kerosene oil d) Gas oil
51. A large number of organic compounds,
especially the unsaturated ones, show a great
tendency to unit. This process is termed as
______
a) Pyrolysis b) Cracking
c) Polymerization d) None of these
52. An isomer of ethanol is ________
a) Dimethyl ether b) Diethyl ether
c) Ethylene glycol d) Methanol
53. When ethylene is heated under pressure, a
transparent solid polymer, ________ is
obtained.
a) Polyethene b) Ethane
c) Methane d) None of these
54. The quality of petroleum is determined by
_______
a) Decane number b) Octane number
c) Hexane number d) None of these
55. Two or more than two different compounds
having the same molecular formula but
different carbon chains or skeletons are said
to be ______
a) Chain isomers
b) Position isomers
c) Functional group isomers
d) Metamers
56. The kind of isomerism which depends upon
the relative position of the functional group, or
the position of double or tripe bond in case of
unsaturated compounds is termed as
________
a) Chain isomerism
b) Position isomerism
c) Functional group isomerism
d) Metamerism
57. Isomerism, which involves compounds having
the same molecular formula, but different
functional groups are called _______
a) Chain isomerism
b) Position isomerism
c) Functional group isomerism
d) Metamerism
58. _______ is exhibited by compounds having
the same functional group but different alkyl
attached to the same multivalent atom.
a) Chain isomerism
b) Position isomerism
c) Functional group isomerism
d) Metamerism
59. In cracking usually catalyst used is _______
a) Pt b) Aluuminosilicate
c) Ni d) Tetra ethyl lead
60. In CCl4 molecule the four valencies of carbon
atom are directing towards the corners of a
_______
a) Cube b) Hexagon
c) Prism d) Tetrahedron
61. The general formula (RCO)2O represents
________
a) An ether b) Ketone
c) An ester d) An acid hydride
62. ______ has the longest bond length.
a) C = C b) C ≡ C
c) C – C d) All of these
63. Compounds in which two alkyl groups are
attached to an oxygen atom are called ______
a) Alkanes b) Ethers
c) Alcohols d) Isomer
64. ________ is the common name of methanol.
a) Formaldehyde b) Acetaldehyde
c) Propionaldehyde d) None of these
65. ______ is the common name of propanone.
a) Acetone b) Ketone
c) Diethyl ketone d) None to these
66. The properties of organic compounds are due
to _______
a) Covalent bonds b) Functional groups
c) Ionic bonds d) None of these
67. ______ of the following are isomers.
a) Methyl alcohol and dimethyl ether
b) Ethyl alchohol and dimethyl ether
c) Acetone and Acetaldehyde
d) Proponoic acid and propanone
68. Which compound contains an sp hybridized C
atom?
a) CH3CN b) CH3CHO
c) CH3NH2 d) None
69. Which of the following isomeric substances
would be expected to have the lowest boiling
point?
a) Hexane b) 2 – methlypentane
c) 2, 2 – dimethylbutane d) 3 – methlypentane
70. The isomers must have the same ______
a) Structural formula b) Molecular formula
c) Chemical formula d) Physical properties
Chapter # 8
Aliphatic Hydrocarbons
1. Valencies in alkanes are _____________
a. Completely satisfied
b. Partially satisfied
c. No satisfied
d. No general rules
2. Alkanes containing one branch on main chain are called_________
a) Iso b) Normal
c) Neo d) Branched
3. When one hydrogen atom of alkane is
replaced/removed, then it is called
_________
a. Alkene
b. Alkyl
c. Aldehyde
d. Saturated hydrocarbon
4. Alkanes are also known as _______
a. Saturated hydrocarbon
b. Unsaturated hydrocarbon
c. Paraffins
d. a & c
5. Sabatier’s Sendren’s reaction involves
_________in presence of Ni
a) alkene & H2 b) alkene & O2
c) alkene & N2 d) alkene & Cl2
6. Zn is a good___________
a) Metal b) Oxidizing agent
c) Non-metal d) Reducing agent
7. Removal of -COOH is called______
a) Carboxylation b) Decarboxylation
c) Esterification d) Hydroxylation
8. Soda lime is a mixture of_____________
a. CaO and KOH
b. CaO and NaOH
c. NaOH and NaO
d. Nao and KOH
9. Malozonide changes into___________
a) Epoxide b) CO2 + H2O
c) Ozonide d) CO+H2O
10. RCOONa+H2O [Electrolysis] is known as _____
a) Bosch reaction b) Kolb reaction
c) Sabatier’s reactiuon d) Frankland reaction
11. R-Mg-Br is called_________
a. Grignard reagent
b. Wurtz reaction
c. Tollen’s reagent
d. Pinacol pinacolour reagent
12. Upto _____ C atoms, alkanes are gases
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 6
13. Alkanes are less reactive than alkenes due to__________
a. Presence of sigma bond
b. Absence of pi bonds
c. Presence of sigma and pi bonds
d. No justification available
14. Introduction of nitro group is called______
a) Nitration b) Halogenation
c) Sulphonation d) None
15. Order of halogenation is___________
a) I>Cl>Br>F b) F>Cl>I>Br
c) F>Cl>Br>I d) Cl>F>Br>I
16. Gas is used in fertilizer ____________
a) C2H6 b) C2H4
c) C2H2 d) CH4
17. General formula of alkenes is _______
a) CnH2n+2 b) CnH2n-2
c) CnH2n d) CnH2n-x
18. The order of dehydration of alcohol is____
a. sec>pri>ter
b. pri>sec>ter
c. ter>sec>pri
d. no specificity occurs
19. Removal of halogen and hydrogen atom is___
a. Halogenation
b. Dehalogenation
c. Dehydrohalogenation
d. Carbonations
20. Alkenes are produced from Dehalogenation of_______
a) di-halides alkane b) tri-halides alkane
c) vic. Di-halide d) vic. Trihalides
21. Reactivity due to pi- electrons is present in
____________
a) Alkane b) Alkene
c) Alkyne d) b and c
22. π- electrons favour____________
a. Less reactivity
b. Addition reactions
c. Substitution reactions
d. None
23. Raney nickel is____________
a. An alloy of Ni-Cu
b. Alloy of Ni-Fe
c. Alloy of Ni-Al
d. Alloy of Ni-Mg
24. Which member of IV A has little tendency to form anions or cations?
a) Pb b) Sn
c) Ge d) C
25. Alkanes due to little chemical reactivity are also called
a) Olefins b) Paraffins
c) Grignard’s reagent d) None of these
26. Methane and other members of paraffins do not react with aqueous solution of acids, alkalies, KMnO4 or other oxidizing agents this lack of reactivity is due to its nature
a) Polar b) Nonpolar
c) Acidic d) Basic
27. Which hybrid orbital will form the compound CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH3
a) SP2 and SP b) SP2 and SP3
c) SP d) SP3
28. Which of the following types of reactions occur when a reactant has a double bond?
a) Substitution b) Addition
c) Photolysis d) Polymerization
29. Among the following orbital bonds, the angle is minimum between
a) SP3 bond b) Px and Py orbitals
c) H – O – H in water d) SP bond
30. The compound with highest boiling point is
a) n – hexane
b) n – pentane
c) 2 – methyl butane
d) 2, 2 – dimethyl propane
31. Alcoholic KOH solution is used for
a) Dehydrogenation
b) Dehalogenation
c) Dehydrohalogenation
d) Dehydration
32. Which is least soluble in water?
a) Phenol b) Benzene
c) Benzoic acid d) Ethanol
33. Baeyer’s test is use to detect the bond in an organic compound
a) Single bond b) Double bond
c) Triple bond d) All of these
34. Ethylene reacts with Baeyer’s reagent to form
a) CO2 and H2O b) Ethyl alcohol
c) Ethylene oxide d) Ethylene glycol
35. When ethylene reacts with chlorine to form an oily product. This oily product is called
a) Baeyer’s test b) Bromine water
c) Dutch – liquid d) Glycol
36. Which of them is used as general anesthetic?
a) Ethane b) Ethene
c) Ethyne d) Ether
37. The positive part of the adding molecule will go to that carbon which has greater number of hydrogen atoms. This statement is called
a) Hoffmann’s Rule
b) Baeyer’s Strain theory
c) Thiele’s theory
d) Markownikoff’s rule
38. Bromo Ethane on treatment with alcoholic KOH yields
a) Propane b) Ethene
c) Ethylene d) Acetylene
39. Metallic carbide on treatment with water gives out a colourless gas which burns readily in air and gives a red precipitate with Cu2Cl2 + NH4OH. The gas is
a) CH4 b) C2H6
c) C2H4 d) C2H2
40. When acetylene reacts with 10% H2SO4 in the presence of HgSO4 yields
a) CH3OH b) CH3COOH
c) CH3CHO d) CH3OCH3
41. Dehydration of Ethanol gives
a) C2H4 b) C2H2
c) C2H6 d) C2H4O
42. Which of the following has active hydrogen?
a) C2H2 b) C2H4
c) C2H6 d) CH4
43. Treatment of propene with cold concentrated H2SO4 followed by boiling water forms
a) Propyne b) Propanol
c) Propanal d) 2 – Propanol
44. Markownikoff’s rule provides guidance for addition of HBr in
a) CH2 = CH – CH3
b) CH2 = CH2
c) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
d) None of these
45. The compound having both SP and SP3 hybridized carbon atom is
a) Propene b) Propane
c) Propyne d) All of these
46. PVC is a polymer of
a) CH2 = CH2 b) C2H6
c) CH2 = CH Cl d) C2H2
47. The structural formula of the compound which yields ethylene upon reaction with Zinc is
a) CH2Br – CH2Br b) C2H3Br
c) C2H2 d) C2H5OH
48. The major reactions occur in alkanes are
a) Electrophilic addition reaction
b) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
c) Free radical substitution reaction
d) Free radical addition reaction
49. Consider a reaction
CH3 – CH = CH2 + H – X → product
The reaction occurs by obeying
a) Wurtz’s rule
b) Frankland’s rule
c) Markownikoff’s rule
d) Kekule’s rule
50. Acetylene is used as a starting material for the preparation of Plastics, Synthetic rubber and Synthetic fibre called
a) Orlon b) Narlon
c) Corlon d) Forlon
51. The high polymer of chloroprene is
a) Polythene b) Benzene
c) Neoprene d) Vinyl acetylene
52. Which one of the following gives Ethyne on electrolysis?
a) Sodium Acetate b) Sodium Succinate
c) Sodium Formate d) Sodium Fumerate
53. Ethene on interaction with hypochlorous acid gives
a) Dichloro acetaldehyde
b) Dichlorohydrin
c) Ethylene chlorohydrin
d) Ethylene Dichlorohydrin
54. The compounds having Pi bonds are in general
a) More reactive b) Less reactive
c) Neutral d) Both a & b
55. Which one will not decolourize bromine water?
a) Ethene b) Ethyne
c) Propene d) Butane
56. Acetylene adds on to HCN to give
a) Acetylene cyanide
b) Cyanoacetylene
c) Vinyl ethane
d) Acrylonitrile
57. Action of HOCl with ethene to give ethylene chlorohydrin is an example of
a) Displacement reaction
b) Substitution reaction
c) Addition reaction
d) Polymerization reaction
58. Chloroform is stored in dark coloured bottles because in light it is
a) Reduced to CCl4
b) Oxidized to CCl4
c) Reduced to phosgene
d) Oxidized to a poisonous phosgene
59. Formation of alkane by the action of zinc on
alkyl halide is called ________
a) Frankland reaction
b) Wurtz reaction
c) Cannizzaro’s reaction
d) Kobe’s reaction
60. The alkynes have _______
a) Tetrahedral frame work
b) Planar molecules
c) Linear structure
d) None of these
61. The alkenes have _______
a) Tetrahedral frame work
b) Planar molecule
c) Linear structure
d) None of these
62. Alkenes undergo _______
a) Addition reaction
b) Substitution reaction
c) Both addition & substitution reaction
d) None of these
63. _______ does not react with aqueous solution
of acids, alkalies, or potassium permanganate
or other oxidizing agents and most of the usual
laboratory reagents.
a) Benzene b) Ether
c) Methane d) Acetic acid
64. The IUPAC name for the following compound
is
CH3 CH2CH2CH3
│ │
CH3 – CH – CH – CH – CH = CH2
│
CH3
a) 4, 5 – dimethyl – 3 – propyl – 2 – hexene
b) 4, 5 – dimethyl – 3 – propyl – 1 – hexene
c) 3– propyl – 3 – dimethylpropyl – 1 – hexane
d) 2, 3 – dimethyl – 4 – propyl – 5 – hexane
65. Markovnikov addition of KCl to propene
involves,
a) Initial attack by a chloride ion
b) Isomerization of 1 – chloropropane
c) Formation of n – propyl cation
d) Formation of isopropyl cation
66. When an aqueous solution of sodium or
potassium salt of mono carboxylic acid is
subjected to electrolytic, corresponding alkane
is formed. This reaction is called ________
a) Sabatier Senderens Reaction
b) Kolbe’s Electrolysis
c) Polymerization
d) Chlroination
67. The elimination of hydrogen halide (HX) from
adjacent carbon atoms is called ________
a) Pyrolysis b) Chlorination
c) Dehydrohalogenation d) None
68. When a mixture of ethane and air is passed
over heated silver under pressure, we get
_____
a) Epoxide b) Super oxide
c) Suboxide d) None
69. The process used for the preparation of
acetylene is _______
a) Berthelot Process
b) Sabatier – Senderns Reaction
c) Kolbe’s Process
d) Haber’s process
70. A simple chemical test to distinguish 1, 3-
butadiene and 1- butyne is
a) Br2│CCl4 b) Ag(NH3)2OH
c) KMnO4 d) None
Chapter # 9
Aromatic Hydrocarbons
1. The molecular formula of toluene is_______
a) C7H7 b) C7H8
c) C8H8 d) C8H7
2. In benzene sulphonic acid, the sulphonic
group is attached with benzene ring
through_____
a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen
c) Sulpher d) –OH
3. Phenanthrene ________ benzene rings
a) Two b) Three
c) Four d) Five
4. Aniline is a derivative of benzene which
contains______
a) Hydroxyl group b) Amino group
c) Amido group d) Imido group
5. How many π electrons are there in benzene?
a) 3 b) 4
c) 6 d) 8
6. The molecular formula of biphenyl methane
is____________
a) C12H10 b) C12H12
c) C13H10 d) C13H12
7. When two or more different substituents are
attached with a benzene ring, the number 1
position in the ring is given to a high priority
group. Which one of the following groups has
highest priority?
a) –NH2 b) –CHO
c) –COOH d) –CN
8. When benzene is substituted by halogens
only, which one of the following halogens is
given the number one position in the ring while
writing the name of compound?
a) Bromine b) Chlorine
c) Flourine d) Iodine
9. Which one of the following is not a meta
directing group?
a) –CN b) –OH
c) –COOH d) –CHO
10. Which pair of groups contains both ortho &
para directors?
a. –OH, –RCO
b. –NR3, –CN
c. –OCH3, –CHO
d. –N (CH3)2, –NH2
11. Michael Faraday discovered benzene in the
gas which was produced by destructive
distillation of vegetable oil done in_________
a. The presence of Oxygen
b. The presence of Hydrogen
c. The absence of Oxygen
d. The presence of excessive Oxygen
12. How many moles of H2 are added up when
benzene is heated with hydrogen in the
presence of platinum?
a) Two b) Three
c) Four d) Six
13. In benzene the C-C bond length is larger than
the C-H bond length by a numerical value
of____________
a) 0.307Ao b) 0.307 nm
c) 0.337Ao d) 0.307 nm
14. The heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is
_____________
a. -219.5 KJ/ mole
b. 219.5 calories/ mole
c. -119 KJ/ mole
d. -119 Cal/ mole
15. The resonance energy of benzene is______
a. 150.5 KJ/ mole
b. 250.5 KJ/ mole
c. 150.5 KJ/ mole
d. 250.5 KJ/ mole
16. The resonance between different structures is
represented by______
a.
b.
c.
d. ~
17. What catalyst is employed when benzene is
prepared from acetylene at 70˚C?
a. Zn amalgam
b. AlCl3
c. Organo-nickel
d. Rancy Rickel
18. Mixture of catalysts Cr2O3 + Al2O3 + SiO2 at
500˚C are used when benzene is prepared
from____________
a. Cycloalkene
b. n-hexane
c. Benzene sulphonic acid
d. Sodium benzoate
19. Which one of the following methods will not
give benzene?
a. Heating so. Salt of Benzoic acid with soda lime
b. Distillation phenol with Zn dust
c. Chlorobenzene with NaOH at 360
˚C & 300atm.
d. Hydrolysis of benzene sulphonic acid with super heated steam.
20. What is the ratio of conc. HNO3 & conc.
H2SO4 when nitration of benzene is done at
50˚C?
a) 1:1 b) 2:1
c) 1:2 d) 2:3
21. In Friedel Craft Alkylation, AlCl3 is used to
generate___________
a. Strong nucleophile
b. Weak nucleophile
c. Strong electrophite
d. Weak electrophite
22. Acylation of benzene is the introduction of
___________on benzene.
O
||
a. R ─ C ─ O ─
O
||
b. Cl ─ C ─
O
||
c. R ─ C ─
O
||
d. H ─ C ─
23. Acetophenone is a ______________
a) Quinone b) Ketone
c) Aldehyde d) Other
24. Reacting bromine with benzene in the
presence of sunlight will result in__________
a. The rupturing of Benzene mg
b. Substitution reaction
c. Addition reaction
d. No-reaction
25. Benzene does not undergo ___________
a. Substitution reaction
b. Addition reaction
c. Polymerization reactions
d. Oxidation reactions
26. During sulphonation of benzene, H2SO4
generates____________ electrophile
a) HSO4- b) SO2
c) NO2- d) NO2+
27. Nitronium ion is_____________
a) NO3 b) NO
c) NO2- d) NO2+
28. Which compound will readily undergo
sulphonation?
a) Benzene b) Nitro benzene
c) Golvene d) Chlorobenzene
29. Benzene is heated in air with V2O5 at 450˚C it
undergo ___________
a. Substitution reaction
b. Addition reaction
c. Elimination reaction
d. Oxidation reaction
30. Which one of the following statement is not
correct about benzene?
a. On hydrogenation, 208 KJ/ mole is liberated
b. C-H bond length in benzene is 1.09Ao
c. Molecular mass of benzene is 78.108
d. Resonance energy of benzene is 150.5 K Cal / mole
31. The preparation of benzene from acethylene
can also be said as ________
a) Oxidation b) Polymerization
c) Dehydration d) Condensation
32. What is required other then anhydrous AlCl3,
when toluene is prepared from Friedel craft
reaction?
a) C6H6 b) C6H6 + CH3Cl
c) C6H5C2H5 d) C6H5 ─ CH2─
33. Replacement of hydrogen of benzene by alkyl
group in pressure of alkyl halide & ferric
chloride is known as____________
a. Dow’s process
b. Friedel & Craft acylation
c. Friedel & Craft alkylation
d. Clemenson reaction
34. Which of the following radical is called benzyl
radical?
a) C6H5─ b) C6H5─CH=CH2
c) C6H5─CH─ d) C6H5─CH2─
35. Which compound form benzoic acid on
oxidation with strong oxidizing agent?
a) Toluene b) Ethyle benzene
c) n-propyl bezene d) all
36. Toluene can be converted to benzoic acid in
presence of _________
a. Dil NaO4
b. Mixture of HNO3 & H2SO4
c. Zn dust
d. Acidified KMnO4
37. Which one of the following is benzal chloride?
a. C6H5 CH2Cl
b. C6H5 CHCl2
c. C6H5─CH = CHCl
d. None of the above
38. What is the molecular formula of
Benzenetriozonide?
a) C6H6O9 b) C6H5O8
c) C6H5O9 d) C6H6O6
39. The hydrolysis of Benzenetriozonide will yield
three moles of ________
a) Glyoxine b) Benzaldehyde
c) Glycol d) Glyoxal
40. Which of the following will undergo nitration more easily and readily?
a) C6H6 b) C6H5CHCl2
c) C6H5CCl3 d) C6H5CH3
41. The reaction of toluene with chlorine in the presence of FeCl3 gives
a) Benzyl chloride
b) Benzal chloride
c) m – Chloro Toluene
d) O/P Chloro Toluene
42. Benzene is made of
a) 6 Pi and 6 sigma bonds
b) 3 Pi and 3 sigma bonds
c) 3 Pi and 12 sigma bonds
d) 6 Pi and 3 sigma bonds
43. Common reaction of Benzene and its derivatives are
a) Electrophilic addition
b) Electrophilic substitution
c) Nucleophilic addition
d) Nucleophilic substitution
44. Benzene when treated with acetyl chloride in the presence of AlCl3 yields
a) Acetyl Benzene b) Benzyl Chloride
c) Benzophenone d) Acetophenone
45. Passing vapors of Phenol over heated Zinc gives
a) Benzene b) Acetic Acid
c) Benzoic Acid d) Benzaldehyde
46. Which of the following is not an explosive?
a) Picric Acid b) Trinitrobenzene
c) Trinitro Toluene d) Nitro benzene
47. Toluene on reaction with acidic KMnO4 produces
a) Phenol b) Benzoic acid
c) Benzyl alcohol d) Benzophenone
48. The b.p of P – nitro phenol is higher than that of O – nitro phenol because
a) Nitro group is O/P group
b) Nitro group is electron donating group
c) Bonding occurs in P – nitro phenol
d) None of these
49. Which of the following can be easily nitrated?
a) Phenol b) Benzoic acid
c) Nitro benzene d) All of these
50. Aspirin is obtained by reaction of sulphuric acid and
a) Phenol b) Benzene
c) Acetyl chloride d) None of these
51. Sulphonation of benzoic acid gives
a) O – benzene sulphonic acid
b) P – benzene sulphonic acid
c) m – benzene sulphonic acid
d) O/P benzene sulphonic acid
52. Benzene can be obtained by
a) Reaction of zinc and phenol
b) Hydrolysis of benzene sulphonic acid
c) Reduction of benzene chloride
d) All of these
53. o – xylene on oxidation yields
a) Oxalic acid b) o – Phthalic acid
c) Toluene d) m – Phthalic acid
54. The resonance energy of benzene is
a) 36 j/mol b) 36 cal/mol
c) 36 Kcal/mol d) none of these
55. The catalyst used for halogenation of benzene is
a) Cu b) Ni
c) FeCl3 d) Zn
56. Which one is nitronium ion?
a) b)
c) d) None of these
57. Which substituent group decrease the reactivity of benzene, because they
a) Increase the electronic density of benzene ring
b) Decrease the electronic density of benzene ring
c) Decrease the stability of phenonium ion
d) Both b & c
58. Benzene on ozonolysis produces
a) Benzoic acid b) Cyclohexane
c) Glyoxal (CHO2)2 d) None of these
59. Meta orienting groups decrease the reactivity of benzene because they
a) Increase the electronic density of benzene
b) Decrease the electronic density of benzene
c) Decrease the stability of phenonium ion
d) Both b & c
60. Benzene was found by _______ in 1825 in the
gas produced by the destructive distillation of
vegetable oils.
a) Hofmann b) Michael Faraday
c) Solvay d) None of these
61. Replacement of hydrogen atom by – SO2OH is
called _______
a) Nitration b) Sulphonation
c) Alkylation d) Hydrogenation
62. The Kekule structures of benzene are related
in which of the following way?
a) They are eac equally correct as structure for
benzene.
b) Benzene is sometimes one structures and
sometime the other.
c) The two structures are in a state of rapid
equilibrium.
d) Neither of the two structures describes
benzene adequately
63. The conversion of toluene into benzoic acid
can be achieved by
a) Br2, heat and light
b) Cl2, FeCl3
c) KMnO4, OH-, heat (then H3O+)
d) None of the above
64. The conversion of ethyl benzene into 1 –
chloro – 1 – phenyl ethane can be achieved by
a) Cl2, light b) Cl2, FeCl3
c) SOCl2 d) None
65. Benzene reacts with chlorine to give a
substance with formula C6H6Cl6. This reaction
is brought about by
a) An acid catalyst b) Ultraviolet radiation
c) Aluminum oxide d) Iron fillings
66. Which of the following will be least reactive to
ring bromination using bromine water?
a) Toluene b) Nitrobenzene
c) Chlorobenzene d) Aniline
67. Benzene and cyclohexene can be
distinguished by which of the following test?
a) AgNo3 │C2H5OH b) Ag(NH3)2OH
c) Br2 │CCl4 d) None
68. Which of the following test can be used to
distinguish C6H5CH2Br and C6H5CH3?
a) Ag(NH3)2OH b) Br2 │CCl4
c) AgNO3 │C2H5OH d) Hot KMnO4
CHAPTER # 10
Alkyl Halides
1. What should be the products when reactants
are alcohol & thionyl chloride in the presence of pyridine?
a) RCl+S+HCl b) RCl+SO2+HCl
c) RCl+SO2+H2O d) RCl+S+H2O
2. Which C-X bon has the highest bond energy
per mole?
a) C-F b) C-Cl
c) C-Br d) C-I
3. Which alkyl halides has the highest reactivity ,
for a particular alkyl group?
a) R-F b) R-Cl
c) R-Br d) R-I
4. 2.8 is the electronegativity of________
a) F b) Cl
c) Br d) I
5. Which one is not a nucleophile?
a) C2H5O─ b) SCN─
c) NH3 d) H3C+
6. The number of molecules taking part in the
rate determining step is called_________
a) Order of reaction
b) Rate or reaction
c) Molecularity of a reaction
d) Extent of a reaction
7. During SN2 mechanism,carbon atom changes
it state of hybridization from___________
a) sp→sp2 b) sp2→sp3
c) sp3→sp d) sp3→sp2
8. What will be the order of reaction of a reaction
whose rate can be expressed R = K [A] [B]?
a) Zero b) One
c) Two d) Three
9. Which one among the following is not a good
leaving group?
a) HSO4─ b) Cl─
c) OH─ d) Br─
10. What is the order of kinetics in the SN1
mechanism?
a) Zero b) First
c) Second d) Third
11. Which alkyl halide out of the following may
follow both SN1 and SN2 mechanism?
a. CH3─X
CH3 H
| |
b. CH3─ C ─ C ─X
| |
CH3 H
CH3
c. CH ─ X
CH3
CH3
|
d. CH3─ C─ X
|
CH3
12. In elimination reaction of alkyl halide, which
site is more susceptible for the attack of
nucleophile?
a) α-carbon b) β-carbon
c) α-hydrogen d) β-hydrogen
13. When two moles of ethyl chloride react with
moles of sodium in the presence of ether, what
will be formed?
a) 2 moles of ethane b) 1 mole of ethane
c) 2 moles of butane d) 1 mole of butane
14. Zn-Cu couple and alcohol generate_______
a) [H] b) H2
c) [O] d) O2
15. When CO2 is made to react with ethyl
magnesium iodide, followed by acid
hydrolysis, the product formed is_________
a) Propane b) Propanoic acid
c) Propanal d) Propanol
16. Grignard reagent is reactive due to ________
a. The presence of halogen atom
b. The presence of magnesium atom
c. The polarity of C-Mg bond
d. All
17. SN2 reaction can be best carried out with____
a. Primary alkyl halide
b. Secondary alkyl halide
c. Tertiary alkyl halide
d. All
18. Elimination bimolecular reactions involve____
a. First order kinetics
b. Second order kinetics
c. Third order kinetics
d. Zero order kinetics
19. For which mechanisms, the first step involved
is the same?
a) E1+E2 b) E2+SN2
c) S1+SN1 d) SN1+SN2
20. The rate of E1 reaction depends
upon____________
a. The concentration of substrate
b. The concentration of nucleophile
c. The concentration of substrate as well as nucleophile
d. No dependence
21. Alkyl halides are considered to be very
reactive compounds towards nucleophile
because___________
a. They have an electrophilic carbon
b. They have an electrophilic carbon & a good leaving group
c. They have an electrophilic carbon & a bad leaving group
d. They have a nucleophilic carbon & a good leaving group
22. Which one of the following species in not an
electrophile?
a) NH3 b) Br+
c) H+ d) BF3
23. Which one of the following reactants will be
required to form ethane from ethyl chloride?
a) Alcoholic KOH b) Aqueous KOH
c) Alkaline KMnO4 d) Aqueous NaOH
24. Which one of the following alcohols will be
formed when ethyl magnesium bromide reacts
with acetone?
a) Primary alcohol b) Secondary alcohol
c) Tertiary alcohol d) Dihydric alcohol
25. Which one of the following molecules does not
form alcohol when reacts with Grignard
reagent?
a) Formaldehyde b) Acetaldehyde
c) Propanone d) CO2
26. In primary alkyl halides, the halogen atom is
attached to a carbon which is further attached to how many carbons atoms
a)Two b) Three
c) One d) Four
27. The reactivity order of alkyl halides for a
particular alkyl group is.
(A) Flouride > chloride > Bromide > Iodide
(B) Chloride > Bromide > Flouride > Iodide
(C) Iodide > Bromide > Chloride > Flouride
(D) Bromide > Iodide > Chloride > Flouride
28. When CO2 is made to react with ethyl
magnesium iodide, followed by acid hydrogen,
the product formed is.
(A) Propane (B) Propanoic acid
(C) Propanal (D) Propanol
29. Grignard reagent is reactive to.
(A) The presence of halogen atom
(B) The presence of Mg atom
(C) The polarity of C-Mg atom
(D) None of the above
30. SN2 reactions can be lest carried out with
(A) Primary alkyl halides
(B) Secondary alkyl halides
(C) Tertiary alkyl halides
(D) All of these
31. Elimination bimolecular reactions involve.
(A) First order kinetics
(B) Second order kinetics
(C) Third order kinetics
(D) Zero order kinetics
32. For which mechanism the 1st step involved in
the same.
(A) El and E2 (B) E2 and SN2
(C) El and E2 (D) El and SN1
33. Alkyl halides are considered to be very
reactive compounds towards nucleophilies
because.
(A) They have an electrophilic carbon
(B) They have an electrophilic carbon and a
good leaving group
(C) They have an electrophilic carbon and a
bad leaving group
(D) They have a nucleophilic carbon and a
good leaving group
34. The rate of E, reaction depends upon
(A) The concentration of substrate.
(B) The concentration of nucleophile
(C) The concentration of substratc as well as
uncleophile
(D) None of the above
35. Which one of the following is not a nucleophile
(A) H2O (B) H2S
(C) BF3 (D) NH3
36) Which Monohaloalkane can not be obtained by the direct action of halogen and alkane?
a) RCl
b) RBr
c) RI
d) None of these
37) For the preparation of RX, by the reaction of Alcohol and Thionyl Chloride requires the presence of a solvent
a) Ether
b) Water
c) Pyridine
d) Acetone
38) The reaction of Sodium metal with alkyl halide in the presence of Ether is called
a) Wurtz’s reaction b) Sabatier reaction
c) Frankland’s reaction d) None of these
39) Carbon carrying negative charge is known as
a) Carbonium ion b) Carbon ion
c) Oxonium ion d) Oxide ion
40) Formation of alkane by the action of Zinc on alkyl halide is called
a) Wurtz’s reaction b) Sabatier reaction
c) Frankland’s reaction d) Kolbe’s reaction
41) Which of the following is an electrophile?
a) b) NH3
c) ROH d) BF3
42) Alkyl halides give reactions
a) Electrophilic substitution
b) Nucleophilic substitution
c) Electrophilic addition
d) Nucleophilic addition
43) When Ammonia reacts with excess of alkyl halides gives
a) Primary amine b) Secondary amine
c) Tertiary amine d) Mixture of amines
44) Nucleophilic substitution reactions are represented by
a) E1 b) SN
c) ROH d) RCHO
45) SN reactions are classified into types
a) 4 b) 3
c) 2 d) 1
46) SN2 reactions occur in
a) Primary alkyl halide
b) Secondary alkyl halide
c) Tertiary alkyl halide
d) All of these
47) Which SN reaction occurs in two steps?
a) SN1 b) SN2
c) Both d) None of these
48) In SN2 reactions, two reactants are involved in the rate determining step while these reactions occur in
a) Two steps b) Three steps
c) One step d) Four steps
49) Which one of them is organometallic compound?
a) RMgX b) RX
c) ROH d) RCHO
50) When Grignard reagent reacts with formaldehyde to yield
a) CH3OH b) C2H5OH
c) CH3COCH3 d) C3H8
51) The chemical reaction in which HX is removed from two adjacent carbon atoms of an organic molecule is called
a) Dehydrogenation
b) Dehydrohalogenation
c) Dehydration
d) Dehalogenation
52) Reaction of RX with Ammonia is called
a) Wurtz’s reaction
b) Frankland’s reaction
c) Hoffmann’s reaction
d) Friedal Craft reaction
53) A nucleophile is a
a) Lewis acid b) Lewis base
c) Arrhenius acid d) Arrhenius base
54) An electrophile is a
a) Lewis acid b) Lewis base
c) Arrhenius acid d) Arrhenius base
55) Rate determining steps in SN1 reaction is always the
a) Slow step b) Fast step
c) Intermediate d) None of these
56) Which one of the organic compound is without oxygen?
a) Ether b) Ester
c) Alkyl halides d) Carboxylic acid
57) Methyl iodide reacts with silver acetate to yield
a) Methyl acetate b) Methyl ester
c) Methylol phenol d) Acetyl halide
58) Grignard reagent reacts with formaldehyde to form
a) Primary alcohol b) Tertiary alcohol
c) Acetic acid d) Ketone
59) Both methane ethane may be prepared in one step reaction from
a) C2H4 b) CH3l
c) CH3OH d) C2H5OH
60) RMgX reacts with PCl3 giving
a) Methyl phosphate b)Trimethyl phosphate
c) Dimethyl phosphate d) None of these
61) Ethyl iodide on its interaction with silver nitrate to yield
a) Ethyl nitrate b) Ethyl nitrite
c) Nitro methane d) None of these
62) Elimination reactions are the reverse of
a) Electrophilic substitution reaction
b) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
c) Addition reaction
d) Oxidation reaction
63) In electron pair donor is a strong base
then the dominant reactions will be
a) SN2 and E2 is a side reaction
b) E2 and SN2 is side reaction
c) E1 and SN2 is side reaction
d) All of these
64) E1 reactions occur in
a) RCH2X b) R2CHX
c) R3CX d) All of these
65) The removal of hydrogen from that beta carbon which has fewer H – atoms is called
a) Wurtz’s rule b) Markownikoff’s rule
c) Saytzeef’s rule d) Hoffmann’s rule
66) Which of them is organometallic compound?
a) RMgX b) TEL
c) TML d) All of these
67) Formula of Thionyl chloride is _______
a) SOCl2 b) ZnCl2
c) CH3Cl d) None
68) When metallic sodium in ether is heated with
an alkyl halide, a higher alkane is formed. It is
called ______
a) Sulphonation b) Wurtz’s reaction
c) Friedel-Crafts reacton d) None
69) Which molecule has a zero dipole moment?
a) CH3Cl b) CCl4
c) CH2Cl2 d) CHCl3
70) Grignard’s reagent reacts with alkyl halide to
form ________
a) Alkanes b) Alkynes
c) Alkenes d) Alcohols
71) On passing CO2 through Grignard reagent
______ is formed.
a) Methanoic acid b) Ethanoic acid
c) Alkyl sodium halide d) None of these
72) The hydrolysis of alkyl halides by heating with
aqueous alkali is a _______ substitution
reaction.
a) Electrophilic b) Nucleophilic
c) Both a & b d) None
73) Ethyl bromide can be converted into ethyl
alcohol by heating with,
a) Aqueous KOH b) Ethanoic KOH
c) Moist silver oxide d) Both a & c
74) The major product obtained by treating 2 –
chlorobutane with alcoholic KOH is
a) 1 – Butyne b) 2 – Butyne
c) 1 – Butene d) 2 – Butene
75) Which of the following is a vic – dihalide?
a) ClCH2CH2Cl b) CH3CHCl2
c) BrCH2CH2CH2Br d) BrCH2CH2CH2CH2Br
76) 3 – Bromohexane can be converted into
hexane using
a) Zn, H+ b) Cu I
c) (CH3)2CuLi d) Na
77) SN2 reaction proceeds via the formation of
a) Carbonation b) Transition sate
c) Free radical d) Carbanion
78) Which of the following alkyl halide reacts
fastest with AgNO3?
a) (CH3)3C – Cl b) (CH3)2 CH Cl
c) CH3CH2CH2Cl d) (CH3)2CCH2-Cl
CHAPTER # 11
Alcohols Phenols and Ethers
1. Which one of the following is termed as benzyl
alcohol?
a) C6H5OH b) C6H5CH(OH)2
c) C6H5CH2OH d) None
2. Which one of the following is also known as
lactic acid?
a) 3-hydroxy propanioc acid
b) 2-hydroxy propanioc acid
c) 2-hydroxy butanoic acid
d) 3--hydroxy butanoic acid
3. Which one of the following is also known as
tartaric acid?
a) 2,3-dihydroxy butanedioic acid
b) 2,2-dihydroxy butanedioic acid
c) 2,3-dihydroxy butanioc acid
d) 2,2-dihydroxy butanioc acid
4. Water gas heated at 450˚C and 200 atm
pressure in the presence of ZnO+Cr2O3 will
produce
a) Methanal b) Methanol
c) Carbonic acid d) Methane
5. The residue obtained after the crystallization of
sugar from concentrated sugar cane juice is
called________
a) Mother liquor b) Filtrate
c) Extract d) Molasses
6. The formula of starch is___________
a) C12H22O11 b) C6H9O5
c) C6H10O5 d) C6H12O6
7. The process of fermentation of starch involve
many enzymes, the sequence of enzyme used
are____________
a) Diastase-maltase-zymase
b) Zymase-maltase-zymase
c) Maltase-diastase-zymase
d) Diastase-zymase-maltase
8. The rectified spirit contain_________
a) 12% alcohol b) 90% alcohol
c) 91% alcohol d) 100% alcohol
9. K2Cr2O7/H2SO4 generate___________
a) Oxygen b) Hydrogen
c) Nascent oxygen [O] d)Nascent hydrogen [H]
10. The oxidation of isopropyl alcohol will
yield____________
a) Propane b) Propanol
c) Propanone d) Propanoic acid
11. Which one is primary alcohol ?
a) Buten-2ol
b) Propan-2-ol
c) Butan-1-ol
d) 2,3-Dimethythexane-4-ol.
12. Action of nitrous acid on ethylamine gives
a) C2H6 b) C2H5OH
c) C2H5OH and C2H4 d) C2H5OH and NH3.
13. Ethyl alcohol is industrially prepared from ethylene by
a) Permanganate oxidation
b) Catalytic reduction
c) Absorbing in H2SO4 followed by hydrolysis
d) Fermentation.
14. Final product formed on reduction of glycerol by hyddriodic acid is
a) Propane b) Propanoic acid
c) Propene d) None of these
15. Phenol on treatment with cone. HNO3 gives
a) Picric acid b) Styphinic acid
c) Both d) None
16. Alcohols are
a) Basic b) Strong acid
c) Amphatere d) Neutral
17. The formula of wood spirit is ?
a) CH3COOH b) CH3OH
c) C2H5OH d) None of these
18. Ethanol containing some methanot is called
a) Absolute spirit b) Rectified spirit
c) Power alcohol d) Methylated spirit
19. Glyccrol is a
a) Primary alcohol b) Monohydric alcohol
c) Secondary alcohol d) Tribydric alcohol.
20. Glyccrol can be obtained from
a) Fats b) Propyiene
c) Both d) None
21. The enzyme which can catalyse the conversion of glucose to ethanol is
a) Zymase b) Invertase
c) Maltase d) Diastase.
22. Hydrolytic conversion of sucrose into glucose
and fructose is known as
a) Induction b) Inverslon
c) Insertion d) Inhibition.
23. Rectified spirit is a mixture of
a) 95% ethyl alcohol +5% water
b) 94% ethyl alcohol +4.53% water
c) 94.4% ethyl alcohol + 5.43% water
d) 95.87% ethyl alcohol +4.13% water
24. Which of the following is not a characteristic of alcohol ?
a) They are lighter than water
b) Their boiling point rise fairly uniformly with rising molccular weight
c) Lower members are insoluble in water and organic solvents but the solubility regulary increase with molecular mass
d) Lower members have a pleasant smell and burning taste, higher members are colouriess and tasteless.
25. Alcohola of low molecular weight are
a) Soluble in water
b) Soluble in water on heating
c) Insoluble in water
d) Insoluble in all solvents
26. Which of the following can work as a dehydrating agent for alcohol ?
a) H2SO4 b) AI2O3
c) P2O5 d) AII.
27. Alcohols reacts with Grignard reagent to form
a) Alkanes b) Alkenes
c) Alkynes d) AII.
28. Alcohol fermentation is brought about by the action of
a) CO2 b) O2
c) Invertase d) Yeast.
29. Amongst the following phenols which is most acidic?
a) Pieric acide b) 2-Nitrophenol
c) 2,4Dinitrophenol d) m-Nitrophenol.
30. Which of the following groups will increase the
acidity of phenol ?
a) –NO2 b) –CN
c) –X(halogens) d) AII.
31. Which is used as an antifreeze ?
a) Glyeol b) Ethyl alcohol
c) Water d) Methanol
32. Baeyer's reagent is
a) Alkaline KMnO4 b) Ammonical AgNO3
c) Ammonial CuSO4 d) CaSO2/Ca(OH)2
33. The reaction between alcohol and carboxylic acids is called
a) Esterification b) Hydrolyais
c) Saponification d) Hydrogenation
34. Alcoholic beverages are made of
a) Ethanol b) Acetic acid
c) Formic acid d) None of these
35. Electrophilic substitution in phenol generally occurs at
a) O- and P-position
b) Metapositions
c) Only at ortho positions
d) Only at para position
36. Phenol is more readily soluble in
a) dil. HCl
b) Both NaOH and HCl
c) NaOH sol
d) Sodium bicarbonate solution.
37. The order of reactivity of halogen acids for reaction with C2H5OH is
a) HCl > HBr > HI b) HI > HBr > HCl
c) HBr > HI > HCl d) HBr > HCl > HI.
38. The reaction of Ethanol with H2SO4 does not give
a) Ethylene
b) Diethyl either
c) Acetylene
d) Ethyl hydrogen sulphate
39. Which one of them is a monohydric alcohol?
a) CH3CH(OH)2 b) CH3C(OH)3
c) C2H5OH d) None of these
40. Glycol is alcohol
a) Monohydric b) Dihydric
c) Trihydric d) Both a & b
41. Wood Naphtha is the commercial name of
a) Ethyl alcohol b) Aldehyde
c) Methyl alcohol d) Acetic acid
42. Ethyl Alcohol is denatured by adding
a) CH3OH & CH3COOH
b) CH3COOH & CH3COCH3
c) CH3OH & Pyridine
d) None of these
43. Methylated spirit is
a) Pure methyl alcohol
b) Methyl alcohol containing water
c) Methanol containing methanal
d) Ethanol containing methanol
44. Alcohol reacts with carboxylic acids, acid an hydrides and acid halides to form
a) Ether b) Ketone
b) Esters d) Aldehyde
45. Strongly acidic solution of Na2Cr2O7 is required for the oxidation of
a) Primary alcohol b) Secondary alcohol
c) Tertiary alcohol d) All of these
46. Low temperature and excess of Alcohol favors the formation of
a) Paraffins b) Olefins
c) Ether d) Esters
47. An alcohol produced in the manufacture of soap is
a) Ethanol b) Propanol
c) Glycerol d) Glycol
48. The formation of Acetaldehyde from ethanol is called
a) Oxidation b) Reduction
c) Addition d) Substitution
49. Denatured Alcohol is known as
a) Absolute alcohol b) Wood spirit
c) Methylated spirit d) Vinegar
50. Which one of the following will not take place if 1 – Propanol is under test?
a) The formation of H2 when sodium is added to it
b) The formation of 1 – bromopropane when reacts with NaBr and concentrated H2SO4
c) The formation of sweet smelling compound when reacts with a mixture of CH3COOH and concentrated H2SO4
d) The formation of yellow colored product when phenyl hydrazine is added to it
51. Bakelite plastic is formed by the polymerization of
a) Phenol b) Acetylene
c) Ethane d) o/p methylol phenol
52. Acidified potassium dichromate is also called
a) Chromic acid b) Acetic acid
c) Iodic acid d) Hydrochloric acid
53. Passing vapors of phenol over heated Zinc gives
a) Benzene b) Acetic acid
c) Benzoic acid d) Benzaldehyde
54. Phenol reacts with dilute HNO3 in the presence of concentrated H2SO4 yields
a) o/p nitro phenol b) o – nitro phenol
c) p – nitro phenol d) None of these
55. Which of the following is not an explosive?
a) Picric acid b) TrinitroBenzene
c) Trinitrotoluene d) Nitrobenzene
56. Sodium salt of benzene sulphonic acid on fusion with caustic soda gives
a) C6H5OH b) C6H6
c) C6H5COOH d) C6H5CHO
57. Ether is soluble in
a) Water b) Dil HCl
c) Conc. KOH d) Conc. H2SO4
58. By accepting a proton, oxygen atom of the Ether forms
a) Carbonium ion b) Carbon ion
c) Oxonium ion d) Oxide ion
59. Williamson’s synthesis is used to prepare
a) Alcohols b) Ethers
c) Esters d) Aldehydes
60. Wax contains
a) – OH Group b) – CHO Group
c) Ketonic Group d) Ester Group
61. Phenol reacts with Bromine water to form
a) Picric acid b) TNT
c) Tribromo phenol d) Toluene
62. Which one is methoxy methane?
a) Olefins b) Paraffins
c) Dimethyl ether d) Dimethyl ketone
63. Alcohol reacts with an organic acid to yield
a) An ester b) Ketone
c) Alkyl halides d) Ether
64. The conversion of ethyl alcohol into acetaldehyde is called
a) Reduction b) Addition
c) Oxidation d) Substitution
65. Diethyl ether is soluble in
a) Water b) Dil HNO3
c) Conc. H2SO4 d) None of these
66. Paraffins dissolve in
a) Water b) Acid
c) Methyl alcohol d) Benzene
67. Phenol and benzyl alcohol can be distinguish by using
a) dil HCl b) Baeyer’s test
c) Aqueous bromine d) Tollen’s test
68. Which one can be used to differentiate between phenol and methyl alcohol?
a) Aqueous Br2
b) Na2Cr2O7 in dil H2SO4
c) Aqueous NaCl
d) Both a & b
69. Which one attack easily on phenol ring
a) Electrophile b) Nucleophile
c) Acid d) None of these
70. Ethers have no hydrogen bonding but they show weak H – bonding when dissolve in
a) Alkane b) Formaldehyde
c) Water d) Kerosene oil
71. Alkoxide ion is a powerful
a) Base b) Acid
c) Salt d) None of these
72. Alkoxide ion is
a) A powerful acid b) Electrophile
c) Nucleophile d) All of these
73. The test which is used to distinguish between primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols
a) Lucas Test b) Iodoform test
c) Benedicts test d) Baeyer’s test
74. Phenol is weaker acid than
a) Water b) Organic acid
c) HX d) Both a & b
75. Methyl alcohol can cause _______
a) Cancer b) Blindness
c) Aneimia d) None
76. Ethyl alcohol is produced on commercial scale
by the biological break down of ________
a) Starch b) Minerals
c) Cellulose d) None of these
77. CH3OH and C2H5OH are highly miscible with
water because they exhibits ________
a) Ionic bonding b) Covalent bonding
c) Hydrogen bonding d) None of these
78. Alcohols may be converted to the
corresponding ______ by actions of halogen
acids in the presence of ZnCl2.
a) Aldehydes b) Alkyl halides
c) Acyl halides d) None of these
79. During the dehydration of alcohols, relatively
high temperature and moderate alcohol
concentration yield the corresponding
_______
a) Ether b) Olefin c) Paraffin d) None
80. Isopropyl alcohol on oxidation gives ______
a) Ether b) Acetone
c) Ethylene d) Acetaldehyde
81. Rectified spirit contains ______ % alcohol.
a) 95.6 b) 75.0
c) 100.0 d) 85.4
82. Primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols may
be distinguished by using _______
a) Fehling’s solution b) Victor Meyer test
c) Hofmann set d) Beilstein test
83. In cold countries glycerol is added to water in car radiators as it helps to ________
a) Bring down the specific heat of water
b) Lower the freezing point
c) Reduce the viscosity
d) Make water a better lubricant
84. Phenol can be converted into p
hydroxybenzaldehyde by
a) Friedel crafts reaction
b) Gattermann synthesis
c) Hauban-Hoesch reaction
d) None of the above
85. Phenol on treatment with excess of bromine
water give
a) O – bromophenol
b) P – bromophenol
c) M – bromophenol
d) 2, 4, 5 – tribromophenol
CHAPTER # 12
Aldehydes and ketones
1. The carbon atom of a carbonyl group is
a) Sp hybridized b) Sp2 hybridized
c) Sp3 hybridized d) None of these
2. Aldehydes can be oxidized by
a) Tollen's reagent b) Fehling solution
c) Benedict solution d) All.
3. Tollen's reagent is
a) Ammonical cuprous chloride
b) Ammonical cuprous oxide
c) Ammonical silver bromide
d) Ammonical silver nitrate.
4. Silver mirror is a test for
a) Aidehydes b) Thioaleohols
c) Acids d) Ethers
5. Aldehydes are produced in atmosphere by
a) Oxidation of secondary alcohols
b) Reducuon of alkenes
c) Reaction of oxygen atoms with
hydrocarbons
d) Reaction of oxygen atoms with ozone
6. At room temperature formaldehyde is
a) Gas b) Liquid
c) Solid d) None
7. Formalin is____________% solution of H-C-H
in H2O
a) 10% b) 20%
c) 40% d) 60%
8. Which does not react with fehiling solution ?
a) Acetaldehyde b) Propanone
c) Glucose d) Formic acid.
9. Aldehydes can be distinguished from ketones by using
a) Schiff's reagent b) Conc. H2SO4
c) Anhy. ZNci2 d) Resorcinol.
10. An aidehyde on oxidation gives
a) An alcohol b) An acid
c) A ketone d) An ether
11. Bakelite is obtained by condensation of
a) Acetaldehyde and acetone
b) Formaldehyde and phenol
c) Acetaldehyde and phenol
d) None of these
12. Carbonyl group undergoes
a) eliminatory reaction
b) electrophilic addition
c) niteophlic adelretion
d) None of them
13. A nucleophilic reagent will readily attack
a) Ethylene b) Ethanal
c) Ethanol d) Ethylamine
14. Which of the following compounds gives a ketone with Grignard's reagent ?
a) Formaldehyde b) Ethanenitrile
c) Ethyl alcohol d) Methyl iodide.
15. Which of the following has carbon with lowest valency?
a) Carbides b) Alkenes
c) Alkynes d) Alkanes
16. Reduction of aldehydes with HI and P give
a) Primary alcohols b) Secondary alcohols
c) Alkanes d) Tertiary alcohols.
17. Which reaction yields Bakelite?
a) Urea with HCHO
b) Tetramethyl glycol with Hexamethylene diisocyanate
c) Phenol and HCHO
d) Ethylene glycol and Dimethylterephthalate.
18. Paraaldehyde is a polymer of
a) Formaldehyde b) Acetaldehyde
c) Benzaldehyde d) Propionaldehyde.
19. Acetone is oxidized with
a) Tollen's reagent
b) Fehling solution
c) Acidic dichromate solution
d) Benedicts solution
20. Formaldehyde when reacted with methyl
magnesium bromide gives
a) C2H5OH b) CH3COOH
c) HCHO d) CH3CHO
21. If formaldehyde and KOH are heated them we
get
a) Acctylenc b) Methanc
c) Methyl alcohol d) Ethyl formate.
22. Acetone on reduction gives
a) CH3COOH b) CH3CHO
c) (CH3)2CHOH d) C2H5OH
23. On oxidation, ketones yield
a) Alcohol b) Amine
c) Carboxylic acid d) Ether
24. Acetone is used in the preparation of
a) Unbreakable glass
b) Smokeless gun powder
c) Chloroform
d) All of these
25. Calcium acetate on dry distillation gives
a) Formaldehyde b) Acetone
c) Acetic acid d) Ethanol
26. A silver mirror test is for
a) Aldehydes b) Ketones
c) Alcohols d) Ethers
27. Aldehydes can be distinguished from ketones by the use of
a) Bayer’s test b) Grignard reagent
c) Iodoform test d) Fehling solution
28. When ammonia reacts with formaldehyde and 8% CH3OH is called
a) Bakelite
b) Para Formaldehyde
c) Meta Formaldehyde
d) Urotropine
29. When Hexamethylene tetramine (Methanamine) reacts with fuming HNO3 to yield a powerful explosive known as
a) Chloropicrin b) Picric acid
c) Cyclonite d) None of these
30. Which one of the following reactions is not given by formaldehyde?
a) Reduction of Fehling’s solution
b) Reduction of Tollen’s solution
c) Formation of phenol complexes
d) Iodoform reaction
31. Which tests are used for the identification of –CHO in an aldehyde?
a) Bayer’s test b) Fehling’s test
c) Tollen’s test d) Both b & c
32. Benzaldehyde on reaction with alkaline KMnO4 yields
a) Benzophenone b) Picric acid
c) Benzoic acid d) None of these
33. Which of the following undergoes halform reaction?
a) HCHO b) CH3COCH3
c) C2H5 d) C2H5O2CH5
34. The compound which gives both positive haloform test and Fehling test is
a) Acetone b) Ethanol
c) Formaldehyde d) Acetaldehyde
35. Silver mirror is carried out for the detection of functional group
a) Ketone b) Ester
c) Ether d) Aldehyde
36. The reagent which is used to distinguish aldehydes and ketones is
a) Schiff’s reagent b) Fehling reagent
c) Tollen’s reagent d) All of these
37. Which one does not pass through aldol condensation?
a) Formaldehyde b) Acetaldehyde
c) Propanol d) Acetone
38. Acetaldehyde reacts with moist chlorine to form
a) Acetyl chloride b) Acetone
c) Chloral d) Chloroform
39. The nucleophilic addition reaction of carbonyl group are catalysed by
a) Salt b) Transition element
c) Acids or bases d) All of these
40. Aldols are those organic compounds which contain functional group
a) – NH2 and COOH b) – CHO and OH
c) – CHO and – CO – d) None of these
41. Cannizzaro reaction do not occur in
a) H – CHO b) C6H5CHO
c) CH3CHO d) All of these
42. Reduction of ketone into alkane in the presence of Zn – Hg is called
a) Aldol condensation
b) Cannizzaro reaction
c) Clemmensen’s reaction
d) None of these
43. Aldehydes and ketones both easily react with
a) Fehling solution b) Schiff’s reagent
c) Grignard reagent d) Tollen’s reagent
44. Benzaldehyde reacts with aniline to form
a) Schiff’s base b) Tollen’s reagent
c) Borsche’s base d) Grignard reagent
45. Almost all the aldehydes and small methyl ketones produce a crystalline white precipitate with saturated solution of
a) RMgX b) Cu(OH)2 + NaOH
c) NaHSO3 d) ROH
46. Which compound gives brick red precipitate of cuprous oxide with Benedict’s solution
a) Aromatic aldehyde b) Aliphatic aldehydes
c) Aromatic ketones d) Aliphatic ketones
47. Ketones produced a wine red or orange red color on adding
a) Fehling solution
b) Tollen’s solution
c) Alkaline sodium nitroprusside solution
d) All of these
48. The IUPAC name of CH3CH = CH – CHO is
a) But – 2 – enal b) But-2-en-3-al
c) Methacrolein d) Propenaldehyde
49. The IUPAC name of OHC – CHO is
a) Glyoxal b) Ethane-1, 2-dial
c) Both a & b d) None is correct
50. The IUPAC name of
OHC – CH2 – CH =CH – CHO is
a) Pent-2-ene-1, 5-dial
b) Propene dialdehyde
c) Prop-1-en-1, 3-dial
d) None of the above
51. The IUPAC name of (CH3)2C = CHCOCH3 is
a) 4-methlypent-3-en-2-one
b) 2-Methlypent-3-en-4-one
c) Acetyl 2-Methyl-butene-3
d) None of the above
52. Dry distillation of calcium format yields _____
a) Ether b) Formaldehyde
c) Acetic acid d) None of these
53. When aldehydes are warmed with ______ red
precipitates of cuprous oxide are precipitated.
a) Grignard’s Reagent b) Fehlings solution
c) KMnO4 d) None of these
54. Acetaldehyde reacts with ammonia to form
________
a) Elimination b) Substitution products
c) Addition product d) Resin like product
55. Aldol condensation can occur between ______
a) An aldehyde and ketone
b) An aldehyde and ester
c) An aldehyde and benzene
d) None of these
56. An aqueous solution containing about 40% of
formaldehyde and a little alcohol is sold under
the name of _______
a) Formalin b) Malt-sugar
c) Pyridine d) Starch
57. A nucleophilic addition of carbonion,
generated by the loss of proton from α-position
of an aldehyde or a ketone by a base, to the
carbonyl group is called _______
a) Nitration b) Aldol Condensation
c) Esterification d) None
58. The product obtained in the following reaction
is ________
CH3CH = CH CHO ?
a) CH3CH = CHCH2OH
b) CH3CH2CH2CHO
c) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
d) A mixture of a, b and c.
59. For a carbonyl compound which of the
following statements is correct?
a) The carbonyl carbon, oxygen and the other
two atoms (attached to carbon) are
coplanar.
b) The two groups attached to carbonyl carbon
are directed at an angle of 120o from each
other.
c) The π electron density around oxygen is
more than the carbonyl compound.
60. The C = O bond and C = C bond are similar in
which of the following ways?
a) Both are made up of one sigma bond and
one pi bond.
b) Both are planer in nature.
c) Both use sp2 hybrid orbitals of the C atom
for their formation.
d) All the above.
61. The reaction of acetaldehyde with conc.
H2SO4 at room temperature gives
a) Paraldehyde b) Metaldehyde
c) A mixture of a & b d) None
62. The following reaction
CH3CHO + HCN → CH3CH(OH)CN is an example of
a) Nucleophilic addition
b) Electrophilic addition
c) Uncleophilic substitution
d) Electrophilic substitution
Chapter No. 13
Carboxylic Acids & Their Derivatives
1) The function group in Citric acid is
a) – OH b) – OR
c) – COOH d) – COOR
2) Esters have general formula
a) ROH b) RCHO
c) RCOOR d) RCOOH
3) The acid present in butter is called
a) Formic acid b) Acetic acid
c) Propionic acid d) Butanoic acid
4) Which one of the following is the strongest acid?
a) CH3COOH b) CH2ClCOOH
c) CHCl2COOH d) C2H5COOH
5) Anhydrous acetic is a crystalline, hygroscopic solid and is also known as
a) Dilute acetic acid
b) Glacial (ice like) acetic acid
c) Methanoic acid
d) None of these
6) Acetyl chloride is formed by the reaction of acetic acid with
a) Thionyl chloride b) Ammonia
c) Alcohol d) Sodium hydroxide
7) Acetic acid is a weak acid because in aqueous solution it is
a) Highly ionized
b) Weakly ionized
c) Insoluble in water
d) No replaceable hydrogen
8) Which of the following is a monobasic acid?
a) H2SO4 b) H2CO3
c) H3PO4 d) CH3COOH
9) Hydrolysis of esters in alkaline medium is called
a) Sponification b) Hydration
c) Esterification d) None of these
10) Which one of the following does not have a carboxylic group?
a) Benzoic acid b) Ethanoic acid
c) Aspirin d) Picric acid
11) Two moles of carboxylic acids on heating in the presence of P2O5 yields
a) Alcohol b) Ether
c) Acetic acid d) Ester
12) Which of them is a strong reducing agent?
a) Formic acid b) Acetic acid
c) Oxalic acid d) Chloro acetic acid
13) Methanoic acid acts as
a) Powerful oxidizing agent
b) Mild oxidizing agent
c) Powerful reducing agent
d) Mild reducing agent
14) Between acetic acid and formic acid, the former one is
a) Less acidic b) More acidic
c) Same strength d) More basic
15) Beta hydroxyl propionic acid is
a) Citric acid b) Aspartic acid
c) Oxalic acid d) Lactic acid
16) Formic acid can reduce
a) Mercuric chloride b) Tollen’s reagent
c) KMnO4 d) All of these
17) The number of H – bonds formed per molecule of carboxylic acid are
a) 4 b) 3
c) 2 d) 1
18) The attachment of electron withdrawing groups result into the
a) Increase of acidity b) Decrease of acidity
c) Increase of strength d) All of these
19) The firs four members of carboxylic acid are completely soluble in water. This is due to
a) Acidic nature b) H – bonding
c) Polymerization d) Reduction
20) Sodium bi carbonate when reacts with a compound “X” as result CO2 liberates with effervescence the compound “X” contain
a) – OH b) – CHO
c) X d) – COOH
21) The carboxylic acid which is used for coagulating rubber latex is
a) Ethanoic acid b) Methanoic acid
c) Propanoic acid d) All of these
22) Acetic acid when reacts with chlorine in the presence of red phosphorus, the product formed is
a) Acetyl chloride b) Methyl chloride
c) Methyl ester d) Chloro acetic acid
23) Which of them has two functional groups?
a) Amino acid b) Salicylic acid
c) Acetone d) Both a & b
24) Amino acids having two NH2 group are
a) Acidic in nature b) Neutral in nature
c) Saltish in nature d) Basic in nature
25) The compound which occur as zwitter ion or dipolar are
a) Ketones b) Aldehydes
c) Alcohol d) Amino acid
26) The dipolar structure of an amino acid is also called
a) Basic salt b) Acidic salt
c) Neutral salt d) Interval salt
27) The test used to identify amino acid is
a) Tollen’s test b) Fehling test
c) Meyer’s test d) Ninhydrin test
28) A peptide having molar mass up to 10000 is called poly peptide while a poly peptide having molar mass more than 10000 is called
a) Protein
b) Essential amino acids
c) Non essential amino acids
d) Acidic amino acid
29) On heating ammonium acetate yields
a) Acetic acid b) Acetamide
c) Ether d) Amino acid
30) A carboxylic acid contains
a) Hydroxyl group
b) Carboxyl group
c) A hydroxyl group and carboxyl group
d) A carboxyl group and aldehydic group
31) Long chain mono carboxylic acid are called
________
a) Aliphatic acid b) Aromatic acid
c) Cyclo carboxylic acid d) None of these
32) Common name of 1, 3 Propanedioic acid is
a) Succinic acid b) Oxalic acid
c) Melonic acid d) Phthalic acid
33) Vinegar is
a) 5% solution of acetic acid in H2O
b) 50% solution of acetic acid in H2O
c) 25% solution of acetic acid in H2O
d) 10% solution of acetic acid in H2O
34) Succinic acid contain total carbon atoms
a) 4 b) 5
c) 3 d) 2
35) Carboxylic acid can be prepared from
a) Alcohol b) Ester
c) Grignard’s reagent d) All
36) In industrial preparation of Acetic Acid from acetaldehyde manganous acetate is used as
a) Catalyst
b) Oxidizing agent
c) To prevent oxidation of Acetic acid into
peracetic acid
d) All above
37) Which one is not the derivative of carboxylic
acid?
a) Acid Halid b) Amino acid
c) Enthanamide d) Acid amide
38) In carboxylic acid carbonyl carbon is
hydridized
a) SP3 b) SP2
c) SP d) None
39) Which one of the following will increase the
acidity of carboxylic acid?
a) OH b) NO2
c) – CN d) Both b & c
40) Which one will decrease the acidity of
carboxylic acid?
a) OH b) NH2
c) Alkyl group d) All
41) Which one is less acidic?
a) CH2 – COOH
│
Cl
b) Cl2 – CH – COOH
c) CH3 – COOH
d) Cl3.C.COOH
42) Which one is more acidic?
a) HCOOH b) CH3COOH
c) C2H4 – COOH d) C2H7 – COOH
43) Which have higher B.P?
a) CH3COOH b) CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
c) CH3O – C2H5 d) Both a & c
44) Carboxylic ion is represented by how many
resonating structure?
a) 3 b) 2
c) 1 d) 4
45) Higher B.P of carboxylic acid as compared to
alcohol of the same m.wt is due to
a) Strong dispersion ferces
b) Strong dipole dipole interaction
c) Two H – bonding per molecule
d) All of these
46) The greater acidity of carboxylic acid as
compared to alcohol is
a) Electron donating effect of – OH group
b) Electron with drawing effect of COOH gp
c) Resonance stability of carboxylic ion
d) All
47) Which of the following compounds on reaction
with NaHCO3 liberates CO2?
a) C2H5 – OH b) CH3 – O – CH3
c) CH3COOH d) CH3CONH2
48) Acetic acid on reduction with LiAlH4 gives
a) Ethane b) Ethanal
c) Ethanol d) Ethyone
49) Acetic acid undergo dehydration reaction with
P2O5 and forms.
a) Methyl acetate b) Butanoic acid
c) Acetic anhydride d) Acetaldehyde
50) A compound undergo reduction with (LiAlH4) it
also dissolve in aq.NaOH from which it can be
recovered by addition of HCl the compound in
a) Carboxylic acid b) An ester
c) An alcohol d) Acid anhydride
51) The solution of which acid is used for
seasoning of food?
a) Formic acid b) Benzoic acid
c) Acetic acid d) Butanoic acid
52) Acetamide is prepared by
a) Heating of ammonium acetate
b) Heating of Ethyl acetate
c) Amonium propionate
d) None
53) R – CH – COO- is called
│
NH3
a) Zwitter ion b) Dipolar ionic form
c) Internal salt d) All
54) Amino acids are the building unit of protein the
linkage b/w Amino acid molecules is called
a) Glycosidic linkage b) Peptide linkage
c) Ether linkage d) All above
55) Which of the following is not a fatty acid?
a) Acetic acid b) Propionic acid
c) Phthalic acid d) Butanoic acid
56) Total number of amino acids are
a) 10 b) 20
c) 30 d) 40
57) Total number of essential amino acids
a) 10 b) 20
c) – 30 d) – 40
58) NH2
│
R – CH – COO- is called
a) α Amino acid b) β amino acid
c) γ amino acid d) None
59) The acid produced in the sting of bees and
ants is
a) Acetic acid b) Formic acid
c) Carbonic acid d) Oxalic acid
60) The conversion of acetic acid to methane is an
example of
a) Hydration b) Dehydration
c) Decarboxyletion d) Oxidation
61) Which class of compound is commonly used
for the artificial flavouring in jams?
a) Aldehyde b) Ester
c) Carboxylic acid d) Ketones
62) CH3 – CH – COO- is called
│
NH2
a) Valine b) Glycine
c) Alanine d) Proline
63) Which of the following is not an Amino acid?
a) Alanine b) Aniline
c) Glyine d) Aspartic acid
64) Ethyl acetate can be prepared by the action of
_______ on carboxylic acid, in the presence of
acidic media.
a) Phenols b) Formalin
c) Pyradine d) Alcohol
65) Which of the following carboxylic acid is the
strongest?
a) CHF2 – CH2 – CH2 – COOH
b) CH3CH2CF2COOH
c) CH2F – CHF – CH2 – COOH
d) CH3CH2CH2COOH
66) Which of the following will serve as the basis
for simple chemical test to distinguish between
CH3CH2COOH and CH3COOHCH3?
a) Conc. H2SO4 b) Conc. HNO3
c) CrO3 │H2SO4 d) NaHCO3 │H2O
67) The IUPAC nomenclature of C6H5CH =
CHCOOH is
a) 3 – Phenyl prop – 2 – enoic acid
b) Cinnamic acid
c) Phenyl acrylic acid
d) 1 – Phynyl – 2 – ethylene carboxylic acid
68) Which of the following carboxylic acids has the
largest acidity constant, Ka?
a) CH3COOH b) ClCH2COOH
c) Cl2CHCOOH d) Cl3CCOOH
69) Which of the following is not a primary amine?
a) Cyclohexylamine b) 3 – hexylamine
c) 1 – Butylamine d) Diethylamine
70) Which statement about the reaction of
1 – bromobutane and NH3 is incorrect?
a) The reaction specifically gives a primary
amine
b) The reaction is a nucleophilic substitution
c) The reaction initially gives a primary amine
d) The reaction may lead to the formation of a
quaternary ammonium salt.
71) 2 – Bromopentanoic acid can be obtained by
a) Pentanoic acid + Br2
b) Pentanoic acid + Br2
c) Pentanoic acid + HBr
d) Pentanoic acid + HBr
72) The product obtained in the following reaction
is CH3CH2COOH ?
a) CH3CHBrCOOH
b) BrCH2CH2COOH
c) BrCH2CHBrCOOH
d) A mixture of all the above products
73) Acetamide can be prepared by the reaction of
ammonia on
a) Ethyl acetate b) Acetyl chloride
c) Acetic anhydride d) All the above
74) The products obtained in the following reaction
are CH3COOCH3 + CH3CH2OH
a) CH3COOC2H5 + CH3OH
b) CH3CH2COOCH3 + CH3OH
c) A mixture of both the above products
d) None of the above
75) Which of the following reaction will give ethyl
propionate?
a) CH3CH2CO2H + C2H5OH
b) CH3CH2CO2H + C2H5OH
c) CH2CO2C2H5 + CH3I
d) All the above reactions
Chapter # 14
Macromolecules
1. Which of the following is polymerization process?
a. The cracking of petroelum
b. Fractional disstillation of crude oil
c. Formation of polyethen
d. Hydrolysis of protiens
2. Which one is addition polymer?
a. Nylon-6 b. Polystyrene
c. Terylene d. Epoxy resin
3. Which is synthetically prepared polymer?
a. Animal fat b. Starch
c. Cellulose d. PVC
4. Vegetable oils are
a. Unsaturated fatty acids
b. Glycerides of unsaurtated faty acids
c. Glycerides of stturated fatty acids
d. Essential oils obrained from plants
5. The water soluble vitamin is
a. A b. D
c. K d. C
6. Which of the following element is not present in all proteins
a. Carbon b. Hydrogen
c. Nitrogen d. Sulphur
7. Hydrolysis of fats is catalysed by
a. Urease b. Maltase
c. Zymase d. Lipases
8. Which of the follwing statement is incorrect for glucose and sucrose?
a. Bothe are soluble in waater
b. Both are naturllay occuring
c. Both are carbohydrates
d. Both are disaccharides
9. Macromolecules may be of
a. Inorganic and organic nature
b. Inorganic nature
c. Organic nature
d. None of the above
10. Structure wise the polymers are of
a. Linear shaped
b. Branched linear shaped
c. Cross inked linear shaped
d. All of the above
11. Major type of polymers are
a. Homopolymer b. Copolymer
c. Teropolymer d. All of the above
12. The epoxy resin are fundamentally
a. Polyethers b. Polyvinyls
c. Polyesters d. None of the above
13. Starch is a polymer of
a. Beta-D glucose
b. Alpha-D glucose
c. Gamma-D glucose
d. Alpha-beta-D glucose
14. the most abundant protiens that are present in the connective tissues throughout the body are
a. Legumin b. Collagen
c. Both d. None of the above
15. Based upon physicochemical properties proteins may be classified into
a. Two types b. Four types
c. Three types d. Five types
16. The primary building blocks of lipids are
a. Fatty acids and gycerols
b. Glycerols and sterols
c. Fatty acids , Glycerols and sterols
d. None of the above
17. Animal and Vegetable fats and oils gave
a. Different structure
b. Similar chemical structure
c. Both the above depend upon the circumstances
d. None of the above
18. The enzyme which use as drug in blood cancer is
a. Thrombin b. Lasparaginase
c. Both of the above d. None of the above
19. Different bases found in DNA are
a. Cytosine and thiamine
b. Adenine and guanine
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
20. Polyethylene is prepared from
a. Ethene b. Ethylene
c. Ethyne d. Both a and b
21. The group of chemical reagents that take part in life sustaining process is called
a. Wax b. Refinery gas
c. Food d. None of these
22. A balanced diet must contain at least
a. Two nutrients b. Four nutrients
c. Six nutrients d. Three nutrients
23. Which one of the following is a single nutrient food?
a. Starch b. Boney
c. Milk d. Glucose
24. Milk is a food containing
a. Single nutrient b. Dinutrient
c. Multinutrient d. None of these
25. Which of these are the sources of energy as well as source for building of tissues?
a. Proteins b. Fats
c. Carbohydrates d. All of these
26. Which nutrients regulate the body processes?
a. Minerals b. Vitamins
c. Water d. All of these
27. The product of oxidation of glucose is
a. CO2 b. Water
c. Energy d. All of these
28. The oxidation of fats produces:
a. CO2 b. CO2 + H2O
c. CO2 + H2O + E d. None of these
29. The oxidation of protein produces urea in addition to
a. CO2 b. Water
c. Nitrogen d. Both a & b
30. Glucose is stored in the liver as
a. Cellulose b. Glycogen
c. Glycerol d. Starch
31. The excess of amino acids are not stored in the body but dominated to form intermediates of
a) Fat metabolism
b) Carbohydrates metabolism
c) Protein metabolism
d) None of these
32. The general formula of carbohydrates is
a. Cn(H2O)n b. C2n(H2O)n
c. Cn(H2O)2n d. None of these
33. Carbohydrates are
a) Polyhydroxy alcohols
b) Polyhydroxy ethers
c) Polyhydroxy ester
d) Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones
34. Monosaccharide and Diaccharides are solid, sweet in taste and soluble in
a. C6H6 b. H2O
c. CHCl3 d. Acetone
35. Carbohydrates which contain 2 – 10 carbon atoms and not are hydrolysable are called
a. Monosaccharides b. Oligosaccharides
c. Polysaccharides d. None of these
36. Which of the carbohydrates is tasteless?
a. Glucose b. Fructose
c. Sucrose d. Glycogen
37. Sucrose on hydrolysis yields
a) Glucose + Mannose
b) Glucose + Fructose
c) Fructose + Mannose
d) Mannose + Galactose
38. Glucose is also called
a. Starch b. Dextrose
c. Sucrose d. Mannose
39. The heterogeneous group of organic compounds which provides insulation for the vital organs protects from electrical shock and maintains optimum body temperature is called
a. Proteins b. Vitamins
c. Lipids d. Carbohydrates
40. The nutrients of food which are involved in communication, nervous defenses, metabolic regulation, catalysis and oxygen transport are called
a. Proteins b. Vitamins
c. Lipids d. Carbohydrates
41. Steroids belong to the family of lipids which are
a. Tricyclic b. Tetracyclic
c. Pentacyclic d. Monocyclic
42. Cholesterol is a steroid which is the important precursor of
a. Sex hormones b. Adrenal hormones
c. Vitamin D d. All of these
43. Gallstones contain:
a) Free cholesterol
b) Combine cholesterol
c) Starch
d) Mannose
44. Enzyme activators are
a. Organic salt b. Inorganic salts
c. Proteins d. Fats
45. Product of sponification is
a. Glycerol b. Salt of fatty acids
c. Nucleic acid d. Both a & b
46. The number of moles of substrate transformed per mole of enzyme per minute at a definite temperature is called
a. Potency b. Turn over
c. Rancidity d. None of these
47. Enzymes are most active at a temperature of:
a. 30oC b. 40oC
c. 45oC d. 50oC
48. Inorganic substances which increase the activity of an enzyme is called
a. Activators b. Inhibitors
c. Coenzymes d. None of these
49. The synthetic fiber composed of an ester of a dihydric alcohol and terphthalic acid is called
a. Rayon fiber b. Acrylic fiber
c. Polyester d. Saran fiber
50. Dacron is the trade name of
a. Nylon 6, 6 b. Terylene fiber
c. Acrylic fiber d. Saran fiber
51. The plastics which are formed by plain polymerization are known as:
a) Thermoplastics
b) Thermosetting plastics
c) Both
d) None of these
52. The trade name of polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) plastic is
a. Dacron b. Teflon
c. Saran d. Nylon
53. The formula of Teflon is
a) (CCl2 – CCl2)n
b) (- CF2 – CF2 -)n
c) (- CBr2 – CBr2 -)n
d) (- Cl2 – Cl2 - )n
54. Which one of the following is addition polymer?
a. PVC b. Polystyrene
c. Polythene d. All of these
55. The condensation polymers among the following
a. Polyester b. Polyamide
c. Eposy resin d. All of these
56. PTEF is formed by the polymerization of
a. CH2 = CH2 b. CH2 = CHCl
c. CF2 = CF2 d. None of these
57. Fluorine is present in
a. Polythene b. Nylon 6, 6
c. Teflon d. Polyester
58. A copolymer is formed by polymerization of
a) A single type of monomer
b) Two types of monomers
c) Three types of monomers
d) All of these
59. A polymer is formed by polymerization of three different types of monomers is
a. Copolymer b. Homopolymer
c. Monomer d. All of these
60. Yeast is a
a) Bacteria b) Antibiotic
c) Virus d) Fungi
61. Polyester resins are the product of the reaction
of _______
a) Alcohol and aromatic acids
b) Polyamines with aliphatic dicarboxylic acids
c) Styrene in the presence of catalyst
d) Epichlorohydrin with diphenylol propane
62. Enzyme tripsin converts
a) Amino acid into proteins
b) Glucose into glycogen
c) Starch into sugar
d) Proteins into amino acids
63. The digestion of fat in intestine is aided by
a) Diffusion b) Peptisation
c) Emulsification d) Neutralization
64. Chemical name of Vitamin A is
a) Thiamine b) Retinol
c) Ascorbic acid d) Nicotinamide
65. Glucose and fructose are
a) Optical isomers b) Functional isomers
c) Chain isomers d) Position isomers
66. Starch is a polymer of ________
a) Glucose b) Fructose
c) Lactose d) Maltose
67. On heationg glucose with Fehling’s solution
we get a precipitate of color _______
a) Yellow b) Red
c) Black d) Green
68. The sweetest of all sugars is
a) Glucose b) Maltose
c) Sucrose d) Fructose
69. Amino acids are least soluble in water
a) At pH = 7 b) At pH >7
c) At pH < 7 d) At isoelectric point
70. Which of the following is the richest source of
energy?
a) Adenosine troposphere (ATP)
b) Adenosine diphophate (ADP)
c) Adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
d) All are equally rich source of energy
71. Digestion of carbohydrates takes place in
a) Mouth b) Stomach
c) Intestine d) Both a & c
72. Brown sugar can be decolourised by
a) Bleaching powder b) Soap solution
c) Hypo d) Animal Charcoal
73. The protein responsible for the clotting of
blood is
a) Fibrinogin b) Albumine
c) Globulins d) None of the above
74. Which hormone controls the metabolism of
carbohydrates?
a) Adrenaline b) Insulin
c) Thyroxine d) Oxytocin
75. Which of the following are required by the
body in small amount only?
a) Proteins b) Fats
c) Vitamin d) None
76. Saponification of coconut oil yields glycerol
and
a) Palmitic acid b) Sodium palmitate
c) Oleic acid d) Satiric acid
Chapter 15
Chemical Industries in Pakistan
1. Which process/ reaction gives urea with ammonium carbonat
a) Hlogenation b) Dehrdration
c) Hydrolsis d) None of the above
2. Urea as a fertilizer contain
a) 57% N b) 73% N
c) 46% N d) 53% N
3. Ammonium nitrate is a useful fertilizer except for
a) Wheat b) Sugar cane
c) Barley d) Paddy rice
4. The phosphoric acid which is used for the preparation of di ammonium phosphate fertilizer is having 60 to 70oC temperature and
a) PH 5-6 b) PH 5.8 to 6\
c) PH 7-8 d) PH 6 to 7.5
5. Which three elements are needed for the healthy growth of plants
a) N.S.P b) N.Ca.P
c) N.P.K d) N.K.C
6. The nitrogen present in some fertilizer help plants
a. To fight against diseases
b. To produce fat
c. To undergo photosynthesis
d. To produce proteins
7. phosphorus help in the growth of
a) Root b) Leave
c) Stem d) Seed
8. The wood paper is derived from the name of which reedy plant
a) Rose b) Sunflower
c) Papyrus d) Water hyacinth
9. Which is not a calcarous material?
a) Lime b) Clay
c) Marble d) Marine shell
10. Ammonium nitrate fertilizer is not used for which crop
a) Cotton b) Wheat
c) Sugar cane d) Paddy rice
11. Cement is very important building material which was first of all introduce by English Mason Joseph Aspdin in
a) 1875 b) 1824
c) 1860 d) 1920
12. Paper consumption per person in Pakistan is
a) 5kg b) 4kg
c) 6kg d) 8kg
13. The slurry which contains in the making of cement ……% of water
a) 35 to 45 b) 40 to 45
c) 45 to 50 d) None of the given
14. The dried paper is wound in the form of a reel having final moisture of about …….%
a) 6 to 8 b) 4 to 6
c) 2 to 8 d) 5 to 8
15. NH2-CO-NH2 is the chemical formula of
a) Ammonia b) Diamino keton
c) Urea d) Both of b and c
16. The fertility of the soil is improved by ______
a. Rotation of the crops
b. Adding lime to the acid salts
c. Adding manure and growing legumes
d. All
17. Which of the following is incorrect statement about nitrogen importance?
a. It enhances plant growth
b. It is involved in the synthesis of protein and nucleic acids
c. It accelerates fruits and flowers growth
d. It is involved in the chlorophyll synthesis
18. The fertilizers, which provide single nutrient from NPK, are called _________fertilizer
a) Straight b) Compound
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
19. Which of the following in macronutrient?
a) Cu b) Cl2
c) H2 d) Zn
20. Addition of urea of the soil is ______________ reaction
a) Endothermic b) Exothermic
c) Both a and b d) No heat energy is involved
21. Which of the following is the most suitable catalyst for ammonia synthesis?
a) Pt b) ZnO + Cr2O3
c) Fe2O3 + MO2O3 d) All of the above
22. The cooling of molten urea by air in the tower is called_________
a) Prilling b) Evaporation
c) Condensation d) Crystallization
23. Which of the following fertilizers is more useful for paddy rice?
a) Urea b) DAP
c) Ammonium sulphate d) Ammonium nitrate
24. DAP (Diammonium hydrogen phosphate) contains _______ PLANT nutrients.
a) 60% b) 65%
c) 70% d) 75%
25. Which of the following potassium fertilizers are more useful for horticultural crops, tobacco & potatoes?
a) KCl b) KNO3
c) K2SO4 d) KMnO4
26. Calcarious material includes___________
a) Lime stone b) Marble
c) Chalk d) All of the above
27. Argillaceous material does not include____________
a) Clay b) Marine shells
c) Slated d) Blast furnace slag
28. Which of the following processes is used for the synthesis of cement?
a) Dry process b) Wet process
c) Both d) None
29. Phosphorus helps in the growth of ________
a) Root b) Leave
c) Stem d) Seed
30. How many zones through which the charge passes in a rotary kiln?
a) 4 b) 3
c) 2 d) 5
31. The nutrients which are required in very small amount for the growth of plants are called.
a. Nitrogenous fertilizers
b. Micronutrients
c. Phosphorus fertilizer
d. Surfactant
32. Which one of the following set of raw material is most suitable for manufacture of urea?
a) CH4, N2 and CO2 b) H2, N2 and CO
c) H2, CO2 and H2O d) H2O, N2 and H2
33. Which one of the following statement is correct for urea?
a. It is a synthetic fertilizer
b. It is a natural fertilizer
c. It provides micronutrients to plants
d. It is an inorganic water soluble compound
34. Which on the following is an inorganic fertilizer?
a) 36% b) 46%
c) 56% d) 66%
35. Which one of the following is an inorganic fertilizer?
a) Manure b) Urea
c) Ammonium nitrate d) All
36. There is only one nitrogen fertilizer which is used as liquid is
a) NH4NO3 b) NH4Cl
a) NH3 d) (NH4)2HPO4
37. Except Ca(NO3)2, NaNO3 and KNO3, all nitrogen fertilizers make the soil
a) Acidic b) Basic
c) Neutral d) None of these
38. Which fertilizer contain 82% nitrogen?
a) NH4NO3 b) KNO3
c) NH4Cl d) NH3
39. NH4NO3 is used as fertilizer for most crops except
a) Potato b) Sugarcane
c) Paddy rice d) Tobacco
40. The percentage of nitrogen in urea is
a) 40% b) 46%
c) 48% d) 50%
41. Potassium fertilizers are used for
a) Fruits b) Vegetable
c) Tobacco d) All of these
42. From which of the following natural fiber is obtained?
a) Animal b) Vegetable
c) Mineral d) All of these
43. The percentage of nitrogen in ammonia nitrate is
a) 46% b) 33 – 33.5%
c) 82% d) 48%
44. NH4NO3 is used as a fertilizer for many crops except paddy rice because
a) Its granules are solid
b) It is poisonous
c) It is neutral
d) The microbial bacteria in flooded field decompose NH4NO3 into N2 gas
45. Manufacturing of super phosphate fertilizer involves
a) Six steps b) Five steps
c) Four steps d) Three steps
46. The percentage of P2O5 in triple super phosphate fertilizer is
a) 45 – 46% b) 46 – 48%
c) 33 – 35% d) 40%
47. The percentage of nitrogen in ammonium sulphate is
a) 21% b) 25%
c) 46% d) 82%
48. The Stoichiometric ration of CO2/NH3 conversion to urea is about
a) 50% b) 55%
c) 60% d) 65%
49. The chief strength producing constituents of cement is
a) Lime
b) MgO
c) Tricalcium silicate (3CaO.SiO2)
d) All of these
50. Clinker is produced by
a) Wet method b) Dry method
c) Bayer’s method d) Both a & b
51. The final product which is obtained from the rotary kiln (cement production) is called
a) Clinker b) Pulp
c) Fiber d) Polymer
52. The separation of cellulose fibers by mechanical method or by various chemicals from the matrix result into
a) Clinker b) Pulp
c) Polymer d) Isomer
53. The industrial abbreviation of Tricalcium aluminate is
a) C2S b) C3S
c) C3A d) C4AP
54. Super phosphate fertilizer is formed by the
a) Acylation of phosphate rock
b) Alkylation of phosphate rock
c) Acidulation of phosphate rock
d) Aromatization of phosphate rock
55. Natural fertilizers are materials derived from
a) Plants b) Animals
c) Algae d) All of these
56. The fertilizers, which provide single nutrient
from NPK, are called _____ fertilizers.
a) Straight b) Compound
c) Both a & b d) None
57. The substances added to the soil in very small
amounts (about 6 grams to 200 grams per
acre) are called _______
a) Macronutrients b) Micronutrients
c) Fertilizers d) None of these
58. A natural fertilizer provide about ______ kg of
nitrogen.
a) 4.5 b) 3.2
c) 2.2 d) 1.5
59. A natural fertilizer provides ______ kg of P2O5
a) 4.5 b) 3.2
c) 2.2 d) 1.5
60. The percentage of nitrogen in ammonium
sulphate is _______
a) 32 – 33.5 b) 50 – 55
c) 80 – 82 d) 20 – 25
61. The percentage of sulphur in ammonium
sulphate is ______ %.
a) 25 b) 21
c) 23 d) 19
62. Ammonium nitrate is sold as a mixture with
_________
a) Soda Ash b) Limestone
c) Zinc d) None of these
63. Any material, which changes the cleaning
effect of water is called _______
a) Fertilizers b) Detergent
c) Acid d) None of these
64. Commercial detergents contain mainly ______
a) RCOON b) RONa
c) RSNa d) ROSO3Na
65. The principle former of almost all glasses is
________
a) (SiO2)n b) (SiO3)n
c) (SiO2)X d) None of these
66. Calcarious material includes ________
a) Lime stone b) Marble
c) Chalk d) All of the above
67. Cement is a mixture of so many compounds
roasted in rotary kiln. Which substances has
greater percentage?
a) Lime (CaO) b) Silica (SiO2)
c) Alumina (Al2O3) d) Magnesia (MgO)
68. The important function of burning zone in the
rotary kiln is ______
a) To dry the moisture of slurry
b) To decompose lime stone to unslaked lime
c) Combination of different oxides like CaO2,
SiO2, Fe2O3 and Al2O3.
d) To reduce the impurities
69. Asbestos is a _______
a) Mineral fiber b) Animal fiber
c) Vegetable fiber d) None of these
Chapter # 16
Environmental chemistry
1. Peeling of ozone umbrella is due to
a) CFCs b) PAN
c) CO2 d) Coal burning
2. DDT is
a) Biodegradable polulutant
b) Nondegradable pollutant
c) Not a pollutant
d) An antibiotic
3. Increasing skin cancer and high mutation rates are
a) Acid rain b) Ozone depletion
c) CO pollution d) CO2 pollution
4. Sewage water is purified by
a) Microorganisms b) Light
c) Fishes d) Aquatic plants
5. UV radiations bring about
a) Skin cancer b) Mouth cancer
c) Lung cancer d) Liver cancer
6. Which one is more toxic?
a) Carbon b) CO2
c) CO d) SO2
7. Soil salinity can be measured by
a) Conductivity meter b) Photometer
c) Protometer d) Potometer
8. Biodegradable pollutant is
a) Plastic b) Asbestos
c) Sewage d) Mercury
9. Lead is
a) Air pollutant b) Soil pollutant
c) Radioactive pollutant d) Noise pollutant
10. Air pollution is not caused by
a) Pollen grains
b) Hydroelectric power
c) Industries and automobiles
11. CO is harmful for humans as it
a) Is carcinogenic
b) Is antogonistic to CO2
c) Has high affinity for heamoglobin than
oxygen
d) Is destructive of O3
12. Disease caused by eating fish in water contaminated with industrial waste having mercury
a) Minamat disease b) Brights dieses
c) Hashmitos disease d) Arthritis
13. Drawbacks of DTT as pesticide is
a) It becomes ineffective after some time
b) It is less effective that others
c) It is not easily degrades in nature
d) its high cost
14. Fish die in water bodies polluted by sewage due to
a) Pathogens
b) Clogging of gills by silt
c) Reduction in oxygen
d) Foul smell
15. Drained sewage has BOD
a) More than that of water
b) Less than that of water
c) Equal to that of water
d) None of the above
16. Which one of the following forms a toxic substance by combining with hemoglobin in blood.
a) CO2 b) CO
c) O2 d) CH4
17. UV radiation from the sun causes a reaction that produces
a) Flourides b) CO
c) SO2 d) O3
18. The half of the atmosphere is concentrated in the lower ………km
a) 3.5 km b) 4.5 km
c) 5.6 km d) 10 km
19. Acid rain is due to increase ion atmospheric concentration of
a) Ozone and dust b) CO2 and CO
b) SO3 and CO d) SO2 and NO2
20. Detergents are sodium salts of
a) Calcium suphonates
b) Barium sulphonates
c) Sodium carbonates
d) Benzene sulphonates
21. BOD is the amount of
a) Carbon dissoved in water
b) Amount of oxygen in water
c) Amount of bacteria in water
d) All of the above
22. The oxygen demand in water is determined by
a) Disulphate ion b) Dichromate ion
c) Bicarbonate ion d) Bidentate ion
23. Herbicides are used for removal of
a) Insects
b) Fungus on the plants
c) Undesited plants
d) Rodents
24. DDT is one of the most powerful
a) Insecticide b) Herbicides
c) Fugicied d) Pastecide
25. Most hazardous metal pollutant of automobiles exhaust is
a) Mercury b) Cadmium
c) Lead d) Copper
26. Photochemical smog is related to pollution of
a) Air b) Water
c) Soil d) Nostic
27. Environmental pollution affects
a) Biotic components
b) Plants only
c) Man only
d) Biotic and abiotic components of
environment
28. Ozone hole refers to
a) Hole in ozone layer
b) Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in
stratosphere
c) Reduction of thickness of ozone layer in
troposphere
d) Increase concentration of ozone
29. Eutrophication causes reduction in
a) Dissolved hydrogen b) Dissolved oxygen
c) Dissolved salts d) All of the above
30. The yellow color in photochemical smog is due
to presence of_____
a) Carbon dioxide b) Nitrogen dioxide
c) Chlorine gas d) None
31. Which one of the following makes the bulk of
hydrosphere’s content?
a) Oceans
b) Glaciers & ice
c) Fresh water lakes and ponds
d) All have equal distribution
32. Chlorination of water may be harmful if the
water contains_______
a) Ammonia b) Dissolved oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide d) All
33. Which substance can be used for disinfection
water?
a) KMnO4 b) Alums
c) Ozone d) All
34. Which statement is wrong?
a) The amount of ozone layer is greater in the
region close to the equator.
b) Ozone acts as filter for UV radiations
c) In the polar region, it acts as pollutant
d) CFCs play effective role in removing O3 in
the stratosphere.
35. Which of the following factors help to measure
quality of water?
a) DO b) BOD
c) COD d) All of the above
36. In the purification of portable water, the
coagulant used is_________
a) Alum b) Nickel sulphate
c) Copper sulphate d) Barium sulphate
37. Newspaper can be recycled again and again
how many times?
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
38. The main pollutant of leather tanneries in the
waste water is_______
a) Chromium III b) Chromium II
c) Sodium d) Copper
39. Which of the following air pollutants is quiet
killer?
a) CO2 b) CO
c) NO2 d) N2O4
40. The outer part of the earth is present in
a) Lithosphere b) Hydrosphere
c) Biosphere d) Atmosphere
41. The components of lithosphere are
a) Soil
b) Mineral of earth crust
c) Organic matter of earth crust
d) All of these
42. The envelop of gases surrounding the earth’s surface which absorb most of the cosmic rays and maintain the balance is
a) Atmosphere b) Bio sphere
c) Hydrosphere d) Lithosphere
43. Ozone is located in
a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere
c) Mesosphere d) Thermosphere
44. Which fuel on combustion produces fumigative and sulphurous emission?
a) Coal b) Gasoline
c) Kerosene oil d) Diesel and furnace oil
45. The solid or liquid particles with diameter ranges from 0.01μ or less up to about 100 μ are
a) Aerosols b) Dust
c) Smoke d) All of these
46. The pollutants responsible for eye, nose, throat, bronchial tract and respiratory tract irritation are
a) H2S b) CO2
c) NH3 d) Both a & c
47. The air pollutant which is responsible for corrosion and erosion is
a) SO2 b) Carbon
c) Smoke d) Aerosol
48. Carbon and soot accelerate the corrosion and erosion due to
a) Acidic nature
b) Basic nature
c) Absorption or adsorption of the gaseous pollutant upon these particulars mater
d) All of these
49. The pollutant which adhere to stones bricks and surface and cause fouling are
a) Smoke and dust
b) Smoke and aerosols
c) Aerosols and dust
d) None of these
50. Clean rain is
a) Basic b) Slightly basic
c) Slightly acidic d) All of these
51. The PH of neutral rain water is
a) 5.6 b) 4.6
c) 3.6 d) 2.6
52. The pollutant which play an important role in smog formation
a) CO b) NH3
c) H2S d) All of these
53. Photochemical smog is
a) Oxidizing smog b) Reducing smog
c) Neutral smog d) Smoke
54. Reducing smog is formed by the combination of
a) Smoke b) Fog
c) Dust d) Smoke & fog
55. The pollutant which results into ozone depletion is
a) CO b) NH3
c) H2S d) Freon
56. The photochemical smog is also called oxidizing smog which has high content of oxidant like
a) O3 b) SO2
c) NH3 d) All of these
57. Presence of heavy metals in water causes
a) Mental retardation b) Nervous disorder
c) Cancer d) All of these
58. Industrial waste water contains
a) Occluded & dissolved gases
b) Inorganic salts & organic compounds
c) Pathogens
d) All of these
59. Drinking water should have
a) Turbidity less than 10ppm
b) pH between 7 to 8.5
c) should be free from diseases causing bacteria
d) all of these
60. The concentration of dissolved molecular oxygen in pure drinking water is
a) 2 to 4ppm b) 3 to 4ppm
c) 4 to 8ppm d) 8 to 10ppm
61. The content of DO in polluted water is
a) Less than 4ppm b) 4ppm
c) 6ppm d) 8ppm
62. The COD (Chemical Oxygen Demand) of water can be determined directly by treating with
a) Dichromate ions b) Chloride ions
c) Oxide ions d) None of these
63. Water having high value of COD means the water is
a) Pure b) Dust
c) Aerosols d) Effluent
64. The techniques used to kill pathogens present in drinking water are
a) Chlorination b) Ozone
c) UV irradiation d) All of these
65. Pathogens present in polluted water can killed by chlorination but cannot remove
a) Viruses b) Taste
c) Odour d) All of these
66. The process in solid waste is burnt at high temperature ranging from 900 to 1000oC
a) Chlorination b) Ozonation
c) Incineration d) All of these
67. The chief pollutant which likely to deplete
ozone layer is
a) SO2 b) NH3
c) CO2 d) CF2Cl2
68. Which one of the following is not a component
of environment?
a) Hydrosphere b) Lithosphere
c) Biosphere d) Stratosphere
69. The yellow color in photochemical smog is due
to presence of _______
a) Carbon dioxide b) Nitrogen dioxide
c) Chlorine gas d) None
70. Which statement is wrong?
a) The amount of ozone layer is greater in the region close to the equator.
b) Ozone acts as filter for UV radiations.
c) In the polar region, it acts as pollutants.
d) CFCs play effective role in removing O3 in
the stratosphere.
71. In the purification of portable water, the
coagulant used is _______
a) Alum b) Nickel Sulphate
c) Copper sulphate d) Barium sulphate
72. The pH range of acid rain is
a) 5 – 7 b) 6 – 8
c) 6.5 – 7 d) Less than 5
73. The %age of SO2 from Volcanic eruption is
a) 47 b) 57
c) 67 d) 77
74. Which layer consist of thick layer of ozone?
a) Stratosphere b) Thermosphere
c) Troposphere d) Mesosphere
75. Main reason of acid rain is
a) SO2 / CO2 b) NO2 / P2O5
c) SO2 / NO2 d) All
76. The thickness of ozone layer is
a) 25 to 50 km b) 25 to 28km
c) 3 km only d) 1 km only
77. The decrease in the thickness of ozone layer
present in the stratosphere is termed as
a) Ozone hole b) Ozone depletion
c) Ozone coagulation d) Both a & b
